1 Dart-Firing Stun Gun Questions and Answers Quiz Curriculum 2010 1) Stun guns are one type of, a device that uses a high voltage, low-power electrical charge to induce involuntary muscle contractions to temporarily incapacitate a noncompliant subject. *a) electronic control device b) mechanical control device c) kinetic control device d) potential control device 2) Technology has progressed from the basic hand-held stun gun to a weapon that propels darts up to 35 feet. This weapon is called the, which propels electrified darts/probes/electrodes/barbs. a) act-firing stun gun (AFSG) b) tar-firing stun gun (TFSG) c) part-firing stun gun (PFSG) *d) dart-firing stun gun (DFSG) 3) In 2006, the Florida legislature created F.S. 943.1717 as a response to inconsistent stun gun use statewide. The legislation governs the training and use of by law enforcement in Florida. *a) dart-firing stun guns b) dart-firing grenades c) dart-firing missile launchers d) dart-firing tanks 4) Florida statute requires that any law enforcement officer authorized by his or her employing agency to operate a dart-firing stun gun must? a) attend either the Commission-approved police course during basic recruit training or an equivalent training course provided by the officer s employing agency. *b) attend either the Commission-approved dart-firing stun gun course during basic recruit training or an equivalent training course provided by the officer s employing agency. c) attend either the Commission-approved explosives course during basic recruit training or an equivalent training course provided by the officer s employing agency. d) attend either the Commission-approved fire arms course during basic recruit training or an equivalent training course provided by the officer s employing agency. 5) Not every criminal justice agency authorizes its officers to carry dart-firing stun guns. However, if an officer is employed by an agency that does, he or she may be required to. a) go through supplemental government training before being allowed to operate the weapon. b) go through rigorous agency training before being allowed to operate the weapon. c) go through no supplemental agency training before being allowed to operate the weapon. *d) go through supplemental agency training before being allowed to operate the weapon. 6) If the officer s agency allows the use of the dart-firing stun gun and has authorized the officer to carry it, he or she is required by the CJSTC to. a) attend semi-annual re-training of at least one hour on its use. b) attend weekly re-training of at least one hour on its use. *c) attend annual re-training of at least one hour on its use. d) attend monthly re-training of at least one hour on its use. 7) As defined in F.S. 943.1717 and 790.01(4)(b), a dart-firing stun gun is categorized as a (force level that is not intended to cause death or great bodily harm) weapon. *a) nonlethal b) lethal c) dangerous d) mild 8) A dart-firing stun gun is not used to?
*a) control people marching in the street b) control a person during an arrest when resistance escalates from passive physical resistance to active physical resistance and the person has the apparent ability to physically threaten the officer or others, or the person is preparing or attempting to flee or escape c) control a person in custody when resistance escalates from passive physical resistance to active physical resistance and the person has the apparent ability to physically threaten the officer or others d) control a person in custody when resistance escalates from passive physical resistance to active physical resistance and the person is preparing or attempting to flee or escape 9) The appropriate and necessary use of a dart-firing stun gun will be determined on the basis of the. *a) officer s training and experience and assessment of all pertinent circumstances b) suspects training and experience and assessment of all pertinent circumstances c) victim s body strength and perceived resilience d) children s training and experience and assessment of all pertinent circumstances 10) Are Stun guns and dart-firing stun guns are available for purchase and legal use by civilians in Florida? *a) Yes b) No c) Yes, but only for affluent people d) No, but there may be exceptions 11) According to F.S. 790.01(4) (b), it is not a violation of this section for a person to carry, for purposes of, a dart-firing stun gun. a) unlawful self-defense in a concealed manner *b) lawful self-defense in a concealed manner c) intimidation in a concealed manner d) attacks in a concealed manner 12) F.S. 790.053(2) (b) states that a person may openly carry a dart-firing stun gun for purposes of. a) unlawful self-defense b) show off c) intimidation *d) lawful self-defense 13) The stun gun was invented in the 1960s by. *a) John Cover b) John Clifford c) John Case d) Jonathan Spencer 14) Intended to create an electric, nonlethal weapon to control violent criminal behavior. This new weapon was called a TASER, an acronym for. a) Timothy A. Swift s Electrical Rifle b) Thomas A. Smith s Electrical Rifle *c) Thomas A. Swift s Electrical Rifle d) Timberlake A. Swift s Electrical Rifle 15) Electronic control devices are all generally built using the same principle, which is delivering relatively low power,, coupled with high voltage to a subject. a) amperage and weight b) amperage and kicks c) punch and wattage *d) amperage and wattage 16) Electronic control devices gain compliance through pain or involuntary muscle contractions causing incapacitation that enables the officer to restrain the subject. a) Shame or involuntary muscle contractions 2
3 *b) Pain or involuntary muscle contractions c) Pain or voluntary muscle contractions d) Pain or involuntary joint contraction 17) Early in its development, the stun gun itself had to make physical contact with a subject because. *a) the electrodes were fixed to the device b) the triggers were fixed to the device c) the wires were fixed to the device d) the power source was fixed to the device 18) Currently, the two most common types of stun guns are. a) the basic stun gun and the dart-firing machine gun b) the basic stun gun and the dart-firing stun gun c) the hand grenade and the dart-firing stun gun *d) the basic stun gun and the dart-firing stun gun 19) Additionally, there are several different types of electronic control tools including shields, batons, and restraint devices. The shield is generally used for. a) riot control and in dispute settling b) drug control and in correctional settings *c) riot control and in correctional settings d) animal cruelty control 20) The first dart-firing stun gun was developed in and is the most widely used tool to date for law enforcement officers in Florida. a) 1964 *b) 1974 c) 1984 d) 1994 21) One example of a dart-firing stun gun is the TASER International TASER device, which is a stun gun with the ability to reach its subject from up to. *a) 35 feet b) 35 yards c) 35 meters d) 35 inches 22) The TASER device is shaped like a handgun and uses to propel two small darts which are connected by wire to the TASER device. a) compressed water b) compressed oil *c) compressed gas d) compressed spring 23) Stinger Systems, Inc. was founded in 2000 as. a) Electronic Domain Technology, LLC *b) Electronic Defense Technology, LLC c) Electronic Defense Technicians, LLC d) Elite Defense Technology, LLC 24) Stinger System s first products included all of the following except? a) Ultron II handheld contact stun device b) The ICE Shield electronic power shield c) The Band-It electronic-prisoner and defendant-control system *d) TASER device 25) Stinger Systems, Inc. introduced a dart-firing device known as the in 2004. *a) Stinger
4 b) Ultron II handheld contact stun device c) The ICE Shield electronic power shield d) The Band-It electronic-prisoner and defendant-control system 26) The TASER and Stinger devices are primarily used by. However, civilians are increasingly using TASER devices as self-defense weapons. a) affluent members of the society b) politicians *c) law enforcement, the military, and security guards d) celebrities 27) is the measure of electrical current or power. *a) Amp (Ampere) b) Charge c) Quantum d) Volt 28) High voltage won t injure a subject if the current (or amps) is. a) high *b) low c) much d) more 29) Low voltage can injure if the current is enough. a) low b) small c) big *d) high 30) Stun guns operate at. a) medium average currents b) high average currents *c) low average currents d) low average voltage 31) Electricity follows the path of. a) most resistance *b) least resistance c) high resistance d) least resistivity 32) In order for a stun gun to operate, electricity must be able to flow between the. *a) probes b) body c) suspect s clothes d) gun 33) The path of least resistance on a dart-firing stun gun is between the. a) body b) trigger c) gun *d) probes 34) The the probes spread on the target, the greater the effectiveness of the weapon. a) narrower *b) wider c) thinner d) thicker
35) Electricity will not pass to others in contact with the subject unless contact is made directly between or on the. *a) probes b) body c) trigger d) gun 36) An officer should remember that electricity can through clothing and even some bullet resistant materials. a) jump b) crawl *c) arc d) fly 37) If the officer were to expose a subject who was submerged or standing in water to a dart-firing stun gun, it would. a) certainly cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject b) probably cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject c) cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject *d) not cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject 38) When a stun gun is pressed against a subject and the trigger is held, the charge passes into the subject s body. Since it has a fairly high voltage, the charge will pass through heavy clothing and skin, but the charge is. *a) not intense enough to damage the subject s body unless it is applied for extended periods b) intense enough to damage the subject s body unless it is applied for extended periods. c) probably intense enough to damage the subject s body unless it is applied for extended periods. d) strong enough to damage the subject s body unless it is applied for extended periods. 39) Does the stun gun affect the subject s nervous system? a) probably *b) yes c) no d) perhaps 40) Stun guns affect the subject s nervous system in all the following ways except? a) the charge combines with the electrical signals from the subject s brain, making it very difficult to decipher any messages b) the subject has a hard time telling his or her muscles to move and may become confused, unbalanced, and incapacitated *c) the subject may lose a significant amount of weight d) the current may be generated with a pulse frequency that mimics the body s own electrical signals. In this case, the current will tell the subject s muscles to do a great deal of work in a short amount of time 41) Depending on shot placement, the subject s torso and limbs will either. a) attract or repel b) swell or extend c) shake or extend *d) contract or extend 42) Conventional stun guns have a simple design. They are about the size of a flashlight and work on nine-volt batteries. The circuitry includes multiple transformers and components that boost the voltage in the circuit, typically between 20,000 and 150,000, and reduce the. *a) volts/ amperage b) charge/ amperage 5
6 c) quantum/ amperage d) volts/ watts 43) The electrodes are simply two plates of conducting metal positioned in the circuit with a gap between them. Since the electrodes are positioned along the circuit, they have a high. a) power difference between them b) charge difference between them c) electricity difference between them *d) voltage difference between them 44) Electrodes have a high voltage difference between them. If this gap is filled with a conductor (the subject s body), the electrical pulses will try to move from one electrode to the other, dumping electricity into the subject s. a) energy system *b) nervous system c) body system d) power system 45) TASER stun guns work the same basic way as ordinary stun guns, except the two charge electrodes aren t permanently joined to the housing. Instead,. *a) they are positioned at the ends of long conductive wires attached to the gun s electrical circuit b) they are positioned at the ends of long insulator wires attached to the gun s electrical circuit c) they are positioned at the ends of short conductive wires attached to the gun s electrical circuit d) they are positioned at the ends of long conductive wires attached to the suspect s body electrical circuit 46) Pulling the trigger of a TASER stun gun breaks open inside the gun, launching them through the air; the attached conductive wires trail behind. a) a decompressed gas cartridge b) a compressed water cartridge *c) a compressed gas cartridge d) a compressed spring 47) In TASER stun guns, the electrodes are fitted with small so that they will grab onto a subject s clothing. *a) barbs b) wires c) strings d) grip 48) The main advantage of the TASER stun guns design is that it stuns subjects from a greater distance. a) typically 15 to 25 kilometers for patrol and 35 feet for SWAT/Special Operations b) typically 15 to 25 feet for patrol and 35 miles for SWAT/Special Operations *c) typically 15 to 25 feet for patrol and 35 feet for SWAT/Special Operations d) typically 15 to 25 meters for patrol and 35 feet for SWAT/Special Operations 49) The disadvantage of TASER stun guns is that if an officer misses or only one probe hits, he or she must to attempt a second shot. a) run *b) reload c) preload d) fire 50) A is the predetermined amount of time (usually five seconds) that a stun device will discharge automatically when activated. a) ride b) time c) circle *d) cycle
7 51) Some TASER stun guns have a built-in. When fired, the gun also releases dozens of confetti-sized identification tags that tell investigators which gun was fired and at what location. *a) shooter-identification system b) suspect-identification system c) crime-identification system d) officer-identification system 52) Some TASER stun guns also have a that records the time and date of shots. a) automatic system b) manual system *c) computer system d) pulley system 53), or touch stun, occurs when the front of the dart-firing stun gun is directly touched to the body of the resisting subject, and the electrical charge is passed to the subject s body. *a) Drive stun b) Drive gun c) Slow stun d) Close stun 54) In this mode (drive stun), the dart-firing stun gun works as a conventional stun gun and is a tool only. a) gain-compliance b) strike-compliance c) firing-compliance *d) pain-compliance 55) The can be used when the suspect is too close to the dart-firing stun gun operator or when a probe application would be hard to make (e.g., a suspect and an officer are fighting, and the dart-firing stun gun operator cannot get a clear shot on the suspect). a) close stun *b) drive stun c) drive gun d) slow stun 56) The does not incapacitate a subject but may assist an officer in taking a subject into custody. a) close stun b) slow stun *c) drive stun d) drive gun 57) To use as a drive stun (without firing probes), the officer should remove the and apply the weapon directly to a subject. a) live bullet b) live Gun c) live stun *d) live cartridge 58) Ideal target areas of the body when using drive stun are muscle mass areas or areas with nerve concentration such as the side of the neck, of the thigh, or abdomen and leg areas (excluding the chest area if possible). a) large/ high/ outside b) large/ low/ inside *c) large/ high/ inside d) small/ high/ inside 59 If the first choice of target area is not effective, an officer may do all of the following except? a) Consider a different area of application b) Use of an additional cycle of application
8 c) Use alternative force option. *d) Release the suspect 60) The drive stun generally does not cause incapacitation. Because of this, officers frequently find themselves in prolonged struggles with violent suspects whom they end up drive stunning several times in several different locations on the body. This often results in multiple discharges, causing scratches on the suspect s body and numerous, which are marks left on a subject s body after a drive stun application. *a) signature marks b) signature moves c) large marks d) small marks 61) An effective alternative technique is for an officer to use a drive stun with a. a) live bullet b) live Gun c) live stun *d) live cartridge 62) An effective alternative technique is for an officer to use a drive stun with a live cartridge. For example, the officer fires a dart-firing stun gun, and the probes are discharged into the resisting subject. A drive stun is then applied away from the probes to achieve. a) neurovascular incapacitation *b) neuromuscular incapacitation c) muscular incapacitation d) neuromuscular effects 63) If only one probe strikes a subject, the will act as a second probe by completing the cycle. This tactic also works even if both probes strike the subject. *a) drive stun b) drive gun c) close stun d) slow stun 64) If the probe spread is very minimal due to a close shot or a drive stun with a live cartridge, a away from the probes will increase the spread and cause incapacitation. a) close stun b) slow stun *c) drive stun d) drive gun 65) are almost always more desirable than drive stuns. *a) Probe hits b) Probe stuns c) Live stuns d) Drive stuns 66) Probe hits are almost always more desirable than drive stuns. Which of the following does not justify this statement? a) They are more effective (neuromuscular vs. pain compliance), b) They can be applied from a safe distance c) They usually require fewer cycles, and cause fewer injuries *d) They act like normal bullets 67) An officer should keep the device as much as possible. *a) clean and dry b) clean and wet c) dirty and dry d) lean and dry
68) If it gets wet, the officer should make sure it is and put in a clean, dry place until it dries completely. a) shut down b) turned out *c) turned off d) turned on 69) An officer should never test the device while it is still. a) soft *b) wet c) dry d) hard 70) Storage will be based on the manufacturers and. a) recommendation/ agency tactics b) commendation/ agency policy c) recommendation/ foreign policy *d) recommendation/ agency policy 71) Storage in temperatures should be avoided. a) Prolonged/ ideal b) Good / extreme *c) Prolonged/ extreme d) Prolonged/ recommended 72) Although use of a dart-firing stun gun is intended to prevent injury to the subject and other people present, the device itself has a very powerful. *a) physical effect b) aerial effect c) nudging effect d) abstract effect 73) The human body uses electricity to move its muscles. A dart-firing stun gun essentially overwhelms that electrical system, causing temporary. a) paralysis/capacitating b) coma/incapacitation c) death/incapacitation *d) paralysis/incapacitation 74) A dart-firing stun gun essentially overwhelms that electrical system, causing temporary paralysis/incapacitation. A 7 to 15- watt system works as a pain compliance tool and does not interfere with a person s. a) respiratory system b) joint system *c) nervous system d) circulatory system 75) A 26-watt system overrides the body s sensory and motor nervous system but has not been shown to interfere with. a) perspiration or heartbeat *b) respiration or heartbeat c) hearing or heartbeat d) eye sight or heartbeat 76) When dart-firing stun gun probes hit a subject, the weapon transmits electric impulses that interfere with the electric impulses used by the human nerve system to communicate with the skeletal muscles, causing physical incapacitation, or. *a) electromuscular disruption (EMD) b) electromuscular disruption (EMC) c) electromuscular disease (EMD) d) electromuscular deterrence (EMD) 9
10 77) On use of a dart-firing stun gun, the subject immediately loses control of his or her body and falls to the ground, incapable of any coordinated action. Possible effects of use could include all of the following except? a) The subject immediately falling to the ground, yelling or screaming, having involuntary muscle contractions b) The subject freezing in place with legs locked, feeling dazed for several seconds or minutes, experiencing vertigo or a temporary tingling sensation c) The subject experiencing critical stress amnesia, not remembering any pain, and/or exhibiting minor signature marks from contact *d) The subject loses a lot of weight due to dehydration 78) The subject may not show any physical effects from the contact but may have sustained injuries from a fall as a result of contact with the dart-firing stun gun. These injuries are usually. *a) minor in nature b) missing in nature c) major in nature d) many in nature 79) At this time, there is evidence that age is a contributing factor in injuries from use of a dart-firing stun gun. a) little *b) no c) a lot d) scanty 80) There is evidence that electrical energy alone, from the use of a dart-firing stun gun, causes significant injury to an unborn fetus or an expectant mother. a) a lot b) compelling *c) no d) little 81) Manufacturers and independent studies assert that the use of dart-firing stun guns has residual medical impact on subjects. a) little *b) no c) a lot d) scanty 82) There is basis to establish that stun guns pose unacceptable health risks when used appropriately on healthy subjects. a) strong b) weak c) little *d) no 83) The fall that results from use of a dart-firing stun gun, if it occurred from heights or other hazardous areas, could cause more significant injuries. *a) elevated b) non elevated c) low d) geographical 84) is a broad classification for unexplained in-custody deaths, usually occurring 20 minutes to 2 hours after the suspect has been taken into custody. *a) Sudden In-custody Death Syndrome (SDS) b) Sudden In-custody Death Syndrome (SDM) c) Sudden In-custody Doze Syndrome (SDS) d) Sudden In-custody Death Symptom (SDS) 85) In nearly all cases of unexplained deaths involving in custody subjects, the victim has exhibited bizarre behavior
11 due to delusional, agitated, or stimulant drug-induced. a) body states b) physical states *c) mental states d) jail states 86) SDS is an emerging medical diagnosis for the following well-documented medical maladies: excited delirium and, which is a form of psychosis resulting from drug use. a) doctor-induced psychosis *b) drug-induced psychosis c) jail-induced psychosis d) custody-induced psychosis 87) Excited delirium and drug-induced psychosis, which is a form of psychosis resulting from drug use, causes hallucinations and/or delusions or positional asphyxia, which is death as a result of body position that interferes with the ability to. a) hear b) eat c) talk *d) breathe 88) Though there are few diagnostic methods to accurately predict an onset of SDS, there are some consistent indicators which alert a trained professional that a subdued person is more susceptible to the. *a) onset of SDS b) offset of SDS c) onset of SDF d) onset of FDS 89) The most common factors of SDS that are relevant to criminal justice officers are the visible signs of distress or indicators that a subject may be suffering from. a) the flu *b) excited delirium c) drug addiction d) confusion 90) Some indicators of this condition (SDS) include all of the following except? a) Unusual or psychotic behavior, disorientation, intense sweating, hot, feverish skin, delirious b) delusional behavior, extreme paranoia, continuously racing pulse, c) A history of drug abuse or use. *d) A lot of palaver 91) The quickest and safest way for an officer to handle a subject in this state (SDS) is to notify EMS as soon as possible, use a dart-firing stun gun to if necessary, and restrains the subject at the earliest possible point using the least restrictive means possible. a) shoot b) scare *c) incapacitate d) injure 92) In as a manner as possible, an officer should attempt to discern if a subject is impaired. *a) safe and practical b) clear c) visible d) harsh 93) Although most subjects who are emotionally or mentally disturbed or under the influence of drugs or alcohol usually, some do not. a) agree b) laugh
12 *c) comply d) exist 94) Although most subjects who are emotionally or mentally disturbed or under the influence of drugs or alcohol usually comply, some do not. should be followed in these situations. a) Security policy *b) Agency policy c) Civilian policy d) Agency ethics 95) An officer must be aware that the typical physiological responses to the dart-firing stun gun are not always present in. *a) impaired subjects b) male subjects c) female subjects d) under age subjects 96) As in any high risk situation, the officer should be prepared to adapt to the situation and take other tactical action. In general, the best approach to handling subjects suffering from any form of is to restrain them as quickly as possible to protect them and others from potential injury. a) poor hygiene b) psychology c) phobia *d) psychosis 97) An officer should follow when encountering an obviously pregnant or ill subject. a) security policy *b) agency policy c) civilian policy d) agency ethics 98) All persons who have been subjected to dart-firing stun gun use should be while in custody, even if they are receiving medical care. *a) monitored regularly b) entertained c) pleased d) punished 99) In accordance with training and agency policy, an officer should consider removing the probes if all signs of are gone. a) pain b) comfort *c) resistance d) compliance 100) Probes that have been removed from the should be treated as biohazard sharps. a) hat *b) skin c) clothes d) shoes 101) If excessive bleeding is observed, medical attention should be sought. a) after a while b) at agency s convenience c) in a few hours *d) immediately 102) Additionally, an officer should clean and bandage any wounds per. a) security policy
13 *b) agency policy c) civilian policy d) agency ethics 103) An officer should look for and treat any possible secondary injuries and seek if the condition requires it. a) government attention b) agency attention *c) medical attention d) policy attention 104) Trained should remove all deeply embedded probes or probes that penetrate sensitive tissue areas (i.e., neck, face, groin, female breast, etc.). *a) medical professionals b) police officers c) state officers d) agency officers 105) Claims that officers used excessive force in the course of an arrest, investigatory stop, or other seizure are analyzed under the objective reasonableness standard (Graham v. Conner, 490 U.S. 386 1989). *a) Fourth Amendment s b) Fifth Amendment s c) Sixth Amendment s d) Tenth Amendment s 106) Use of force incidents are judged on whether officers considered that a reasonable person would believe the officers actions were justifiable based on the known to officers at the time the force was used. a) totality of scenes b) minimalism of circumstances *c) totality of circumstances d) totality of stuff 107) The officer must consider, without regard to underlying, his or her authority to use force and the totality of the circumstances, much of which officers may have no control over. a) hope *b) intent or motivation c) want d) wish 108) In these instances (where force is used) the officer must be able to articulate verbally for why he or she chose to utilize the DFSG. a) guilt b) innocence c) opinion *d) justification 109) Florida Statute also requires officers to consider using a DFSG only when a subject is actively,. *a) physically resisting b) resisting c) emotionally resisting d) mentally resisting 110) The court has established law on the use of a in the case of Draper vs. Reynolds, 369 F3d 1270 (11th Cir. 2004).
14 a) stun gun *b) TASER c) probes d) darts 111) The court has established law on the use of a TASER in the case of Draper vs. Reynolds, 369 F3d 1270 (11th Cir. 2004). of the traffic stop led the court to conclude that if the officer had attempted handcuffing without the use of the TASER, it would have escalated into a serious physical struggle. a) Photos b) Drawings *c) Video d) audio 112) The court has established law on the use of a TASER in the case of Draper vs. Reynolds, 369 F3d 1270 (11th Cir. 2004). Video of the traffic stop led the court to conclude that if the officer had attempted handcuffing without the use of the TASER, it would have escalated into a serious physical struggle. The one-time shock of a suspect with a TASER did not constitute and was reasonably proportionate when the subject repeatedly refused verbal commands and became hostile, belligerent, and uncooperative during the stop. a) minimum force b) excessive pressure c) enough force *d) excessive force 113) Many law enforcement officials claim that in some situations, stun guns can be an effective alternative to more harmful methods such as traditional. a) whips *b) firearms and batons c) combat d) tear gas 114) Numerous recent independent studies have reaffirmed the life-saving value of. According to TASER International, these studies have determined TASER technology although not risk-free is among the safest options available. a) TASER technology/ non-use-of-force b) TASER bombs/ extreme use-of-force c) LASER technology/ possible use-of-force *d) TASER technology/ use-of-force 115) An officer should first attempt to gain control of a situation by using. *a) verbal commands b) verbal actions c) audio content d) visual commands 116) An officer should first attempt to gain control of a situation by using verbal commands. Many physical encounters can be avoided by this process, often referred to as. a) verbal escalation b) visual de-escalation c) visual escalation *d) verbal de-escalation 117) By disengaging or, an officer gives the subject another opportunity to comply with lawful commands and avoid the use of the dart-firing stun gun. a) engaging b) disengaging *c) de-escalating d) escalating 118) If all efforts to verbally de-escalate the situation are exhausted or are not feasible, the use of a dart-firing
15 may be warranted. a) launcher *b) stun gun c) shot gun d) sniper gun 119) Not every situation where a subject displays an active physical resistance calls for the application of a dart-firing stun gun. During these encounters, an officer must continually assess whether to and decide on the appropriate force option. *a) engage or disengage b) escalate c) disengage d) engage 120) Many times, the most prudent approach may be for the officer to fend off the initial assault then disengage and. a) escalate b) engage *c) reassess d) de-escalate 121) The most prudent approach may be for the officer to fend off the initial assault then disengage and reassess. From this point, the officer can either escalate to a higher force option or de-escalate to a lower force option as. *a) the situation dictates b) the officer pleases c) the subject dictates d) the subject pleases 122) The officer can either escalate to a higher force option or de-escalate to a lower force option as the situation dictates. Whenever possible, this should be done from a position of. a) advantage b) disadvantage *c) cover d) risk 123) If an officer decides to use, he or she will be expected to articulate that, based on training, experience, and assessment of the circumstances, use of the device was the best force option for the situation. a) a Weapon *b) a dart-firing stun gun c) their fist d) their strength 124) The dart-firing stun gun is not to be used to coerce a subject to give statements or perform. *a) an illegal act b) a legal act c) a lawful act d) a self defense act 125) Use of a dart-firing stun gun in a punitive manner without lawful authority may be violating a citizen s and subject to the following decision: U.S. Code Title 42 Chapter 21 Subchapter 1 Section 1983: a) civil obligations *b) civil rights c) civil prerogatives d) public rights 126) The use of a dart-firing stun gun is for the use of a firearm. *a) not a substitute b) a substitute
16 c) a supplement d) not a supplement 127) The use of a dart-firing stun gun is not a substitute for the use of a firearm. However, this does not exclude its use in place of a firearm when an officer is has all the following except? a) Afforded the time b) Reasonable cover c) A backup officer *d) An unaware suspect 128) Once the decision to use a dart firing stun gun has been made, an officer must consider a number of tactical factors including the all of the following except? a) What is the most effective area of the body to target? b) What is the physical environment around the subject? *c) What is the height of the suspect? d) Are there officer safety concerns or danger to the subject or nearby public? e) Is there cover or concealment available for an officer? f) Is there a time constraint? g) Is backup present or en route? h) At what point in the encounter might an additional dart-firing stun gun application be required? 129) The of a subject s body, when using a dart-firing stun gun, should be low center mass and/or large muscle groups such as the back, buttocks, and legs. *a) primary target b) secondary target c) tertiary target d) bold target 130) When using a dart-firing stun gun, the should be avoided when possible. a) leg area b) buttocks area c) back area *d) chest area 131) Alternative target sites might be the back near the shoulders or the back of the legs where, if clothed, the clothing fits tighter and the probes will conduct to the subject more effectively. a) power *b) electricity c) energy d) light 132) The of a subject, the clothing he or she is wearing, and how he or she is wearing it could also play a big role in the effectiveness of a dart-firing stun gun application. a) mental positioning b) risky positioning *c) physical positioning d) satellite positioning 133) The dart-firing stun gun may not be as effective when the subject has on or very thick clothing. *a) loose-fitting b) tight-fitting c) bad-fitting d) well-fitting 134) The intentional targeting of a subject s head, neck, face, chest, or groin should be when possible because of a higher likelihood of potential for injury to the subject. a) maximized *b) avoided c) encouraged
17 d) optimized 135) Officers must observe the subject and be aware at all times of the methods subjects may use to a dart-firing stun gun including where a subject s hands are. *a) defeat b) deploy c) win d) comply to 136) Officers must observe the subject and be aware at all times of the methods subjects may use to defeat a dart-firing stun gun including where a subject s hands are. He or she must also be prepared to intervene when necessary with an additional application/cycle or other methods of. a) defeat b) winning c) competing *d) control 137) There are a number of to consider prior to the use of a dart-firing stun gun. For instance, if a subject is encountered in an elevated position, such as on a ledge or stairwell, the officer should consider that if he or she fires a dart-firing stun gun, the subject may become incapacitated and injure him- or herself upon falling. a) policy factors *b) safety factors c) legal factors d) agency policy 138) If a subject is operating a vehicle or machinery and is incapacitated by a dart-firing stun gun, there is a possibility that the subject could turn the vehicle into, deadly object. a) a machine b) a fast *c) an uncontrolled d) a controlled 139) If a subject is in or could fall into water when hit with a dart-firing stun gun, the subject could. *a) drown b) choke c) jump d) fall 140) If a flammable chemical spray has been deployed on a subject, the dart firing stun gun could the subject. a) choke b) suffocate c) miss *d) ignite 141) An officer should follow his or her and procedures regarding the use of OC sprays and dart-firing stun guns. a) personal policies *b) agency s policies c) family s policies d) school s policies 142) If a subject is in an environment containing hazardous materials or potentially flammable, volatile, or explosive materials that could be as a result of firing the dart-firing stun gun, the subject could when hit with a dart-firing stun gun.
18 a) choked/choke b) missed/miss *c) ignited/ ignite d) burned/burn 143) An officer should try to have at least one present to handcuff the subject after the officer with the dart-firing stun gun has gained compliance. *a) backup officer b) backup stun gun c) backup handcuffs d) backup battery 144) An officer should try to have at least one backup officer present to handcuff the subject after the officer with the dart-firing stun gun has gained compliance. The primary officer will be operating the dart-firing stun gun and the backup officer(s) will take of the subject. a) mental control b) psychological control c) physiological control *d) physical control 145) By taking advantage of the time the subject is, the backup officer moves in and secures him or her, while the primary officer maintains control through the use of a dart-firing stun gun. a) disturbed b) stressed *c) incapacitated d) sick 146) While the cycle (five seconds) is active, the officer may not be able to manipulate the subject s arms or legs to handcuff them. At this point, the subject is usually no longer trying to resist and wants to comply but has little or no and may appear to be resisting. a) mental control *b) muscular control c) physical control d) psychological control 147) At this point (while the cycle (five seconds) is active), the subject is usually no longer trying to resist and wants to comply but has little or no muscular control and may appear to be resisting. It is for the officer s (and the subject s) safety that the officer be aware of the potential uncontrollable overreaction in these situations. *a) subject s b) officer s c) citizen s d) student s 148) Experts in the field that there is no definitive number of exposures to the electricity that a dart-firing stun gun produces. *a) agree b) disagree
19 c) say no d) are uncertain 149) The reasonableness standard will help in the decision-making process. For example, an officer who is left alone several minutes away from the nearest backup and is facing a large subject who is threatening to do serious bodily harm to the officer to use a dart-firing stun gun. a) ought not to b) should not decide c) may not decide *d) may decide 150) If at the end of the cycle, the subject still refuses to comply. An officer demanding compliance and deliver another cycle. *a) may continue b) may not continue c) should not continue d) ought not to continue 151) Several cycles may be necessary until another officer arrives on scene to assist or until the subject stops. a) mentally resisting b) physically complying *c) physically resisting d) physically agreeing 152) An officer should on case law, department policies, and current trends regarding dart-firing stun guns. The manufacturer may provide updates. *a) stay up to date b) teach c) write d) read and write 153) Subjects expecting encounters with law enforcement may be putting objects or shields under their clothing to render the dart-firing stun gun. a) effective *b) ineffective c) lethal d) weak 154) Subjects may also stop, drop, and roll to darts. a) insert b) play with *c) pull out d) touch 155) If a subject begins to roll, an officer should close the distance, move with the subject, and keep sufficient slack in the wire to maintain contact. a) water
20 b) wire c) gun *d) electrical 156) Subjects may wait for the cycle to stop then the darts and may even begin to run away. a) insert b) play with *c) pull out d) touch 157) Subjects may wait for the cycle to stop then pull out the darts and may even begin to run away. An officer must be prepared to close in and utilize a drive stun or transition to another to stop the suspect from leaving. a) harsh option *b) force option c) soft option d) credible option 158) reporting of this decision and the use of a dart-firing stun gun is required. *a) Prompt and accurate b) Convenient c) Delayed and accurate d) Prompt and inaccurate 159) An officer s employing agency will have specific on when and how to document Dart-Firing Stun Gun Use. a) police and training b) agency and training c) officers and training *d) policy and training