1. At which approximately altitude is the atmospheric pressure ½ of the pressure at MSL (mean sea level)? a) 1.500m MSL b) 2.000m MSL c) 5.500m MSL d) 7.000m MSL 2. The rate of oxygen in the air is 21%. What happens with this rate at increasing altitude? a) It is increasing b) It stays the same c) It is decreasing d) It is decreasing or increasing according to the air pressure 3. The air pressure is essentially depending on the air temperature and air density. It is increasing when... a)...the air temperature is decreasing and the air density is increasing a)...the air temperature is decreasing and the air density is decreasing a)...the air temperature is increasing and the air density is increasing a)...the air temperature is increasing and the air density is decreasing 4. What effects the air density during jumping at a drop zone at high MSL? a) The lower air density effects a slower descent a) The lower air density effects a faster descent a) The higher air density effects a slower descent a) The higher air density effects a faster descent 5. Which descent should a skydiver expect in very hot air? a) Increased descent b) Decreased descent c) Regular descent d) Changing descent
6. The TV weather chart is showing Germany between a high pressure area and a low pressure area. The isobars are close to each other. Which weather conditions should you expect? a) Low winds from varying directions b) Strong winds c) Low winds, but from a certain direction d) Strong winds in the beginning, than decreasing winds 7. If the air masses are colder or warmer than the values of the standard atmosphere, your altimeter shows values which are... 1)...not usable 2)...correct 3)...too high if its colder 4)...too low if its warmer a) No answer is correct b) Answer 1 is correct c) Answers 3 and 4 are correct d) Answer 2 is correct 8. An altimeter at a fixed location shows 0 meters altitude. Few days later it shows 150 meters. What is the reason for that? a) Falling air pressure b) Altimeter alterations were made c) The altimeter must be broken d) Risen air pressure 9. The altimeter shows 1.500m GND during climbing. Is this the true altitude above ground level? a) No, because the current temperature and air pressure are almost never corresponding to the standard atmosphere, on which our altimeters are calibrated b) You can trust this informations 100 percent c) The difference can be up to 300 m d) There is always standard atmosphere, because our altimeters are calibrated on that
10. The surface wind (WV = wind velocity) is given WV 060 /10 kts. Which winds can you expect at 1.000m with regular conditions? a) 150 /30 kts b) 360 /20 kts c) 090 /20 kts d) 060 /10 kts 11. Which characteristics does the weather show on the Foehn side of the Alps? a) Severe clouds, rainfall, good visibility b) Less clouds, abnormal rise of temperature, less humidity, often gusty winds c) Less clouds, no rainfall, high humidity d) Changing clouds, single showers, slightly winds 12. What does wind result from? a) Varieties of temperature b) Varieties of pressure c) Varieties of density d) Topographical varieties 13. There is no windsock at the target area. How can you identify the direction of the surface wind? a) By the movement of the clouds and cloud shadows b) By the movement of flags, high trees or trails of smoke c) By the take-off and landing direction from airplanes d) Its impossible to identify without windsock 14. At which wind speed one isn`t allowed to continue jumping as a licensed skydiver (maximum value for competition jumpers according to FAI rules)? a) From 5 m/s = 10 kts or higher b) From 7 m/s = 14 kts or higher c) From 15 m/s = 30 kts or higher d) From 11 m/s = 22 kts or higher
15. Why is the wind speed near the ground for the most part lower than up high? Because... a)...the variety of pressure is always lower at the ground than up high b)...the temperature at the ground is always lower than up high c)...the air density at the ground is higher than up high d)...the ground surface is a frictional resistance 16. Which local wind, that you can find on hot summer days at low altitude (0-300 m), can make the main collapse? a) Stiff wind from the East b) Dust devil c) Polar winds d) Weak thermal 17. What is meant by the term wind shear? a) Sudden change of wind direction at the ground b) Sudden change of wind speed at the ground c) A noticeably change of wind directions at different altitudes d) Strong rotating updrafts in the thermal 18. What is the rule of thumb for the conversion of wind speed from meter per second to knots? a) kts = m/s x 0,5 b) kts = m/s x 2 c) kts = m/s x 1,5 d) kts = m/s x 2,5 19. A roll cloud in front of a storm front is originated by the cold air, which is falling down together with the rain within the thundercloud. This cold air is redirected at the ground and spread out in front of the storm front with high velocity. Which acute danger does an approaching thunder storm create for the jumper? a) Sudden increase of wind speed and change of wind direction b) Electrostatic charge of the parachute c) Ground fog d) The silence before the storm
20. How strong can the up wind be in a strongly developed thundercloud? a) Maximum of 5 m/s b) Maximum of 2 m/s c) Less than 1 m/s d) More than 10 m/s 21. A thunder storm is coming up quickly. What does that mean for the running operation? a) It is stopped when the thunderstorm is reaching the edge of the drop zone b) It is stopped when the wind shift occurs c) It is immediately stopped d) It continues running until it starts to rain 22. Which processes are beneficial to the dispersal of mist? a) Increasing warming and the movement of air (wind) b) Amplified radiance and increasing turbulences c) Overflow of a cooler surface combined with simultaneous clearing off d) Drop of dew point and cooling down 23. What are the causes for up winds? a) Flowing warm air is gliding obliquely onto static cold air b) By different warming of air above the ground caused by solar radiation c) Cold air is digging under warm air and lifts it up d) Deviation of air caused by relief features 24. Above which surfaces are you to expect thermal updrafts during solar radiation, which result in a longer glide of the canopy? a) Lakes, rivers, humid meadows b) Dry sands, rocky terrain, stony target c) It is the same above all surfaces d) There are no thermal up winds
25. How do you label the airflow at the windward side of an obstacle (hill, building)? a) Wave updraft b) Thermal updraft c) Turbulent updraft d) Mechanical updraft 26. Above which surfaces are you to expect thermal down drafts during solar radiation, which result in a shorter glide of the canopy? a) Lakes, rivers, humid meadows b) Dry sands, rocky terrain, gravel pit c) It is the same above all surfaces d) Cornfield 27. You are looking towards the evening sun and the wind is blowing in your face. It is wind... a)...from the East b)...from the North c)...from the West d)...from the South 28. A skydiver is jumping on a hot day. Its nearly cloudless. Suddenly he realizes that hay, grass and litter is being carried skywards coming to his direction. How can you explain that and what should he expect? a) A strong thermal updraft was built and has detached from the ground. He should expect strong eddy winds and corresponding turbulences b) It is a thermal updraft. It is not dangerous and has no effect on the jumpers parachute. c) Strong winds somewhere else brought the hay, grass and litter and drops it here. You do not need to expect something special. d) A strong thermal down draft was created. You should expect a hard PLF
29. Where could a mechanical down draft occur which might be a threat for skydivers? a) Right before a gathering roll cloud b) At the windward side from higher obstacles c) At the down wind side from higher obstacles d) Above the gravel pit at strong solar radiation 30. What should you expect to happen, when landing at the downwind side of an obstacle with moderate briskly winds? a) The updraft in front of the obstacle makes the parachute drifting beyond the target b) The descent speed is increasing due to the down drafts behind the obstacle c) The descent speed is decreasing due to the updrafts behind the obstacle d) It has no influence on the landing, when you land at the downwind side of an obstacle 31. A dark cloud with rainfall stripes reaching the ground is coming up to the drop zone. Which imminent danger exists for he ongoing jumping operation? a) One should expect sudden upcoming fall winds b) One should briefly expect strongly refreshing gusty winds at the ground c) There is no danger, the jumping operation can continue d) Electrostatic discharge can occur (lightning flash) 32. Which conditions facilitate the gustiness of winds? a) Stable layering and even terrain b) Thermals and rolling terrain c) The development of a ground inversion d) A change of wind direction corresponding to the height
33. What should you expect when landing in the proximity of the upwind side from an obstacle, with moderate briskly winds present? a) The updraft in front of the obstacle can make the parachute drift beyond the target b) The descent speed is increasing due to the down drafts in front of the obstacle c) The descent speed does not change at first. When the jumper reaches the downwind side, it decreases. d) It has no influence on the landing, if you land at the upwind side of an obstacle 34. At the drop zone the wind gauge shows a wind force of 8 m/s. Which wind force can you expect at deployment altitude? a) Stronger winds b) The same wind c) Less winds d) Wind force at the ground multiplied by the sinus of the latitude 35. At which time of day deos the mountain wind blow? a) During the night b) During the day c) Before sunset d) Before sunrise 36. At which time of day does the valley wind blow? a) During the night b) During the day c) Before sunset d) Before sunrise 37. At which time of day does the land wind start blowing? a) During the night b) During the day c) Before sunset d) Right before sunrise
38. At which time of day does the sea wind start blowing? a) During the night b) During the day at about 10 `clock c) Before sunset d) Before sunrise 39. Which clouds indicate a stable layering of the atmosphere (Troposphere)? a) Cumulus clouds b) Cluster clouds c) Stratus clouds d) Cirrus clouds 40. Which clouds indicate an unstable layering of the atmosphere (Troposphere)? a) Cumulus clouds b) Stratus clouds c) Cirrus clouds d) Mist 41. The two cloud species, which mostly bring abundant big dropped rainfall and make impossible, are... a) Cu, Cb b) Ns, Cb c) Cu, Ns d) St, As 42. Which cloud species and rainfall variety match? a) Cu and drizzle b) Ci and shower c) Cb and steady rain d) Ns and nonstop rainfall 43. In which cloud could cm-sized hailstones move upwards at high velocity? a) Ci b) Cu c) Cb d) Ns
44. Which two cloud species allow a jumping operation? a) Cirrostratus, Nimbostratus b) Cirrus, Altocumulus c) Stratocumulus, Cumulonimbus d) Deep stratus, Altostratus 45. In which levels are the different clouds divided? a) As many levels as cloud species b) In layer, swell and ice crystal level c) In bottom, middle and top level d) Basement, downstairs, upstairs 46. Which cloud levels are relevant to skydivers? a) The bottom and the middle level b) Only the top level c) The cirrus and the alto level d) All levels are important, because the sun could also hide behind clouds at the top level 47. How does a cloud come to existence? a) Rising air is cooling down and reaches the dew point. Now excessive water vapor is condensing and gets visible b) A cloud is only generated above lakes, sees and oceans c) The jet stream is primarily responsible for the clouding d) Rising air, which passes a mountain chain, is raining out the present dirt particles, which leads to clouding