Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 1. When choosing a route along which to respond to a reported hazardous materials incident, how should the approach be planned? A. From upwind and upgrade B. From upwind and downgrade C. From downwind and upgrade D. From downwind and downgrade Objective: NFPA 472, 5.1.2.2(1-4); Level: Operations Subject: Plan an Initial Response; Chapter 4; Page 92, 93 2. On which type of hazardous materials incident should early responders establish a plan for decontamination? A. On incidents involving gases or vapors B. On incidents that will likely involve direct contact with the material C. On incidents involving offensive operations D. On all incidents Objective: NFPA 472, 5.1.2.2(2)(d); Level: Operations Subject: Decontamination; Chapter 4; Page 103 3. Which is a commonly used resource to determine the size of a vapor cloud? A. A scientific functions capable calculator B. Specialized computer software C. Preincident plan D. GPS triangulation Objective: NFPA 472, 5.2.4(3); Level: Operations Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 86 Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 1
4. Which of the following is a critical factor in determining the appropriate level of PPE? A. The experience of the fire fighters on hand B. The availability of protective gear available C. The physical state and characteristics of the material D. The responders experience with this material Objective: NFPA 472, 5.1.2.2(2)(c), 5.3.3(1-2); Level: Operations Subject: Plan an Initial Response; Chapter 4; Page 92, 93 5. Which of the following is a defensive action? A. Plugging B. Patching C. Diking D. Product transfer Objective: NFPA 472, 5.1.2.2(2)(b), 5.3.2(1); Level: Operations Subject: Personal Protective Equipment; Chapter 4; Page 94 6. Which function should occur in the warm zone? A. Command post B. Decontamination corridor C. Triage area D. Staging area Objective: NFPA 472, 3.3.15.4; Level: Operations Subject: Decontamination; Chapter 4; Page 103 7. What does the R stand for in ERG? A. Radiological B. Response C. Region Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 2
D. Rules Objective: NFPA 472, 4.2.3(1-2); Level: Operations Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 86 8. What is the first priority on any hazardous materials incident? A. Safety of responders B. Rescue of victims C. Stoppage of leak D. Confinement of material Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(1-12); Level: Awareness Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 86 9. Which of the following is a critical factor in determining the decontamination methods employed for a specific incident? A. Level of PPE B. Area exposed C. Specific hazard(s) involved D. Incident commander s preference Objective: NFPA 472, 5.2.2(3); Level: Operations Subject: Emergency Decontamination; Chapter 4; Page 103, 104 10. What can be used to determine the ph of a hazardous material? A. Litmus paper B. Organic paper C. M-8 paper D. M-9 tape Objective: NFPA 472, 5.2.3(1)(a)iii; Level: Operations Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 91, 92 Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 3
11. What does the abbreviation TLV stand for? A. Type limit variable B. Total limit viability C. Time length variable D. Threshold limit value Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Awareness, Operations Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 85 12. Which value is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be exposed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week? A. Time-weighted average B. Long-term exposure limit C. Working exposure limit D. Ceiling level Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Operations Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 85 13. Which threshold limit value sets a maximum concentration above which no exposure of any duration should be permitted? A. Ceiling B. Maximum exposure limit C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Awareness, Operations Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 85 Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 4
14. In the yellow and blue-bordered sections of the ERG, how are materials that are included in the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Distances identified? A. They are in bold print. B. They are italicized. C. They are highlighted. D. They are underlined. Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(8-9); Level: Awareness Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 86 15. Materials are listed in the green section of the ERG because of their: A. flammability or explosion hazard. B. toxicity. C. reactivity. D. instability. Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(8-9); Level: Awareness Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 88 16. In the ERG, the Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances are found on pages that have borders. A. red B. yellow C. blue D. green Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(8-9); Level: Awareness Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 88 17. The ERG refers to the as the area downwind of the spill or leak where steps must be taken to protect the public. A. evacuation area B. protective action distance Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 5
C. initial isolation zone D. exclusion zone Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(8-10); Level: Awareness Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 88 18. What term does the ERG use for the distance from a spill or leak that all persons should be evacuated in all directions? A. Exclusion zone B. Protective area C. Contaminated area D. Initial isolation zone Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(8-10); Level: Awareness Subject: Estimating the Potential Harm or Severity of the Incident; Chapter 4; Page 88 19. As it applies to hazardous materials response strategy, what does the term isolation mean? A. Taking steps to control the direction of a material release and minimize downwind exposures B. Using appropriate PPE to prevent direct contact with the material C. Preventing spread of a material beyond a specified zone or perimeter D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1; Level: Awareness Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 90 20. What is the most effective way to maintain the security of an isolation perimeter? A. Posting security personnel B. Placing traffic cones, signage, and barrier tape C. Erecting barricades D. Using emergency vehicles to block access points Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 6
Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(6)(a); Level: Awareness Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 90 21. If it is necessary to isolate a hazardous materials incident, it will also be necessary to: A. take protective actions. B. deny entry. C. contain the material. D. evacuate. Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(6)(a); Level: Awareness Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 90 22. Relocation of people who are threatened by a potential hazard is called: A. evacuation. B. isolation. C. decontamination. D. rescue. Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(6)(b); Level: Awareness Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 90 23. How can a thermal imaging camera be useful at a hazardous materials spill? A. To detect the direction of travel of a plume B. To predict the direction of travel of vapor or smoke C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container D. To assist in material identification Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Operations Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 91 24. What is the term for the amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solution? Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 7
A. Dispersion B. Concentration C. Diffusion D. ph Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Awareness, Operations Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 91 25. How is the concentration of a gas typically expressed? A. Parts per million (PPM) B. As a percentage C. ph D. Units of weight per unit of volume Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Operations Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 91 26. What is the purpose of a secondary device? A. Initiate detonation of the primary device B. Kill and injure emergency personnel C. Act as backup in case of failure of the primary device D. Create misdirection or a diversion Objective: NFPA 4.2.1(20); Level: Awareness Subject: Plan an Initial Response; Chapter 4; Page 93, 94 27. What does the A stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Avoid touching anything that might conceal an explosive device. B. Assist victims cautiously. C. Assess the scene for likely locations of secondary devices. D. Assume the presence of a secondary device at all scenes. Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Awareness, Operations Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 8
Subject: Plan an Initial Response; Chapter 4; Page 93, 94 28. What does the EVADE acronym address? A. Decontamination B. Nerve agent poisoning C. Scene assessment D. Secondary devices Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Awareness, Operations Subject: Plan an Initial Response; Chapter 4; Page 93, 94 29. What does the D stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Deny entry. B. Do not become part of the problem. C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. D. Dike, dam, dilute, and divert. Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Awareness, Operations Subject: Plan an Initial Response; Chapter 4; Page 93, 94 30. Diversion of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive Objective: NFPA 472, 6.6.4.1(3)(f); Level: Operations Mission Specific Subject: Plan an Initial Response; Chapter 4; Page 94 31. Dilution of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 9
B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive Objective: NFPA 472, 6.6.4.1(3)(e); Level: Operations Mission Specific Subject: Exposures; Chapter 4; Page 91 32. What service does the NFPA perform with regard to hazardous materials PPE? A. Creates standards B. Performs testing and certification C. Recommends usage D. All of these options are correct. Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Awareness, Operations Subject: Personal Protective Equipment; Chapter 4; Page 94 33. Where will you find recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions? A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG) C. NFPA standards D. Material safety data sheets Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Operations Subject: Personal Protective Equipment; Chapter 4; Page 94 34. For which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection? A. You will be exposed to splashes of the material. B. You will have to handle the material. C. There are high atmospheric concentrations of the material. D. None of these options are correct. Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 10
Objective: NFPA 472, 4.4.1(5)(b); Level: Awareness Subject: Hazardous Materials: Types of PPE; Chapter 4; Page 96 35. What is a proximity suit designed for? A. Limited exposures to high temperatures B. Protection from radiological hazards C. Protection from both chemical and heat hazards D. Hazardous materials support work, such as decontamination Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3(2)(b)ii; Level: Operations Subject: Hazardous Materials: Types of PPE; Chapter 4; Page 96 36. Which term describes when a chemical passes through a material on a molecular level? A. Degradation B. Permeation C. Infiltration D. Impregnation Objective: NFPA 472, 6.2.3.1(3)(a)ii; Level: Operations Mission Specific Subject: Hazardous Materials: Types of PPE; Chapter 4; Page 97 37. Signs that chemical protective clothing is undergoing the process of include discoloration, charring, swelling, and shrinking. A. degradation B. corrosion C. decomposition D. deterioration Objective: NFPA 472, 6.2.3.1(3)(a)i; Level: Operations Mission Specific Subject: Hazardous Materials: Types of PPE; Chapter 4; Page 97 Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 11
38. A Level chemical-protective suit is one that is designed to protect the wearer from gases, vapors, and liquids. A. A B. B C. C D. D Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3; Level: Operations Subject: Chemical-Protective Clothing Ratings; Chapter 4; Page 98 39. Which level of protective equipment is required when working with highly toxic vapors? A. A B. B C. C D. D Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3; Level: Operations Subject: Chemical-Protective Clothing Ratings; Chapter 4; Page 98 40. You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that this substance is harmful by inhalation but not by skin contact. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3; Level: Operations Subject: Chemical-Protective Clothing Ratings; Chapter 4; Page 98, 99 41. What is the highest level of chemical protective clothing that permits the use of an air-purifying respirator? Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 12
A. A B. B C. C D. D Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3; Level: Operations Subject: Chemical-Protective Clothing Ratings; Chapter 4; Page 99 42. The use of Level protective clothing should be used only in situations where there is no atmospheric hazard. A. A B. B C. C D. D Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3; Level: Operations Subject: Chemical-Protective Clothing Ratings; Chapter 4; Page 100 43. Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water? A. Technical B. Mass C. Emergency D. Formal Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.4(4); Level: Operations Subject: Emergency Decontamination; Chapter 4; Page 103, 104 44. A victim of a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials is transported by ambulance to a hospital. This action will result in of ambulance personnel and the medical care facility. A. exposure B. contamination C. secondary contamination Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 13
D. infection Objective: NFPA 472, 5.2.3, 5.3.4(11); Level: Operations Subject: Emergency Decontamination; Chapter 4; Page 104 45. Which is the best example of secondary contamination? A. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging B. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident C. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material Objective: NFPA 472, 5.2.3, 5.3.4(12); Level: Operations Subject: Emergency Decontamination; Chapter 4; Page 104 46. At a hazardous materials incident, what are the hot, warm, and cold zones? A. Control zones B. Isolation perimeters C. Protective action distances D. Groups or divisions Objective: NFPA 472, 5.1.2.2(3)(a); Level: Operations Subject: Emergency Decontamination; Chapter 4; Page 104 47. For hazardous materials responders, what is the most important element of PPE? A. Vapor protection B. Respiratory protection C. Splash protection D. Thermal protection Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3(1); Level: Operations Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 101 Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 14
48. Which statement about positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus is correct? A. They are also known as rebreathers. B. They filter and condition atmospheric air for breathing. C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. D. They use compressed or liquid oxygen. Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3(1)(a)i; Level: Operations Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 101 49. What is a primary advantage of a supplied-air respirator? A. Reduces weight and bulk for the wearer B. Provides greater mobility C. Is less susceptible to mechanical damage D. Eliminates the need to carry an air cylinder Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3(1)(a)ii; Level: Operations Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 102 50. Which statement about air-purifying respirators is correct? A. They are supplied by a low-pressure hose connected to a remote air supply. B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant. C. They use a closed-circuit system. D. The catalytic type may be used in low-oxygen atmospheres. Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3(1)(a)v; Level: Operations Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 102 51. How does a closed-circuit SCBA operate? Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 15
A. Fresh air is supplied by one tank and exhaled air is stored in another tank. B. Exhaled carbon dioxide reacts with a catalyst to produce oxygen. C. Exhaled breath is released to the atmosphere. D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system. Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3(1)(a)iii; Level: Operations Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 102 52. What does the C in CBRN stand for? A. Chemical B. Communication C. Corrosive D. Contact Objective: Appendix of NFPA 472; Level:Operations Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 100 53. Which type of breathing apparatus is equipped with an escape cylinder? A. Supplied-air respirator B. Powered air-purifying respirator C. Closed-circuit SCBA D. Open-circuit SCBA Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.3(1)(a)ii; Level: Operations Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 102 54. What is the term for a person having a radioactive material on his or her clothing? A. Exposure B. Contamination C. Absorption D. Contact Objective: NFPA 472, 5.3.4(1-5); Level: Operations Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 16
Subject: Respiratory Protection; Chapter 4; Page 102 55. A fully encapsulated suit is part of Level protective clothing. A. A B. B C. C D. D Objective: NFPA Line Item N/A; Level: Operations Subject: Chemical-Protective Clothing Ratings; Chapter 4; Page 98 Copyright 2016 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company, and the National Fire Protection Association 17