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1 Are you up to the TEST? Take the 2015 Technical Training Exam Available online at: avionicsnews.net FAA-accepted training is available to AEA members through the pages of Avionics News. With the 2015 Technical Training Exam, you have the opportunity to complete eight hours of accepted training applicable toward your IA renewal and earn the AEA s prestigious Avionics Training Excellence Award. Simply refer to the 2015 back issues of Avionics News or go to avionicsnews.net to search the archives. This exam is available online to AEA members. Log in to aea.net to get a head start on training without ever leaving your office. While satisfying your thirst for avionics knowledge, you simultaneously can build hours toward IA renewal and the AEA s Avionics Training Excellence Award. Complete the exam online, and you are on your way to receiving training credit. Avionics News, your source for the latest in avionics technology, regulatory affairs and educational topics, offers training recognized by the FAA. FAA-ACCEPTED TRAINING 8 hours toward IA renewal AVIONICS TRAINING

2 2015 Avionics News Technical Training Exam Based on Avionics News issues from Grade of 85 percent or better required for credit. Work individually; choose best available answer. Take and submit the test online at avionicsnews.net. This answer sheet also can be ed to JANUARY For modifications of most in-service aircraft, which of these represent the top-down hierarchy of certification levels? A. Supplemental Type Certificate (STC), minor change, major alteration B. 337, major alteration, minor alteration C. STC, major alteration, minor alteration D. Field approval, STC, minor alteration 2. Part 21 defines minor changes in type design and defaults all others as major, while Part 43 defines major alterations and defaults all others to minor. 3. A is one that has no appreciable effect on the weight, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics or other characteristics affecting the airworthiness of the product. A. major change B. major alteration C. minor change D. minor alteration 4. The term appreciable as it relates to aircraft modification is. A. not defined in the regulations B. capable of being perceived or measured C. Both A and B Repair Stations: Getting the ADS-B system installation right 5. With respect to the ADS-B mandate, aircraft flying at or above 18,000 feet MSL require the use of a by January 1, A. Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) B ES Transponder C. ADS-B In receiver D. Both A and B E. Both B and C 6. If an aircraft owner has an airplane with a service ceiling above 18,000 MSL but chooses not to operate in that airspace, they can still equip with a UAT but must be aware of their limitations. 7. An approved position source must be used as part of an ADS-B installation, and it must have been approved for use by an STC/TC for use with specific ADS-B Out equipment. 8. If an ADS-B In configuration is set properly and the pilot reports that they are now able to see traffic on their portable, this is adequate enough to see that the ADS-B installation is correct. 9. To verify ADS-B system compliance, an avionics shop can use the appropriate test equipment or simply ask the pilot to conduct a flight test, then request a compliance report by ing the FAA. FEBRUARY Geographic authorization authorizes a certified repair station. A. to modify its operation specifications to work on airplanes from other countries B. to perform maintenance, preventative maintenance or alterations anywhere C. located outside of the U.S. to maintain U.S.-registered aircraft at a location outside the country where the repair station certificate is held.

3 Tools and Test Equipment 11. Which of the following best describes a repair? A. Modifying an article from its original condition B. Restoring an article to its original condition C. Altering an article from its original condition to make it airworthy D. Modifying a component so it s approved for return to service 12. The FAA and DERs may only make a finding that functional equivalency for special equipment or test apparatus is acceptable. The repair station bears the burden of demonstrating [test equipment] equivalency. 13. Tools and test equipment equivalency files are required per FAA Order to facilitate the work of FAA DERs and FSDO inspectors in the equivalency acceptance process. 14. What is a golden component as it relates to tools and test equipment equivalency? A. A new component approved for return to service using the TTE recommended in the manufacturers CMM. B. A used serviceable component approved for return to service using the TTE recommended in the manufacturer s CMM. C. Any used tool or test equipment that has been calibrated D. Both A and B E. Both B and C 15. DERs provide engineering assistance and technical data approval in the reverse-engineering process [for TTE equivalency] and are responsible for the airworthiness of the component approved for returned to service by the repair station. MARCH Keeping a repair station manual locked in a supervisor s office while work is being performed is acceptable to the FAA. 17. Repair Station Manuals and Quality Control Manuals are while Repair Station Training Programs are by the FAA. A. Required, not required B. Subject to audit, not subject to audit C. Approved, accepted D. Accepted, approved 18. If an employee is not capable of performing the assigned task,. A. They are not considered qualified personnel B. They can be qualified through additional training or education C. Both A and B 19. Repair station training program records must be retained for a minimum of years. A. Zero, there is no requirement to retain records by the repair station B. Two C. Five D. For as long as the employee remains with the company Avionics Corrosion Control 20. Corrosion is the destruction of metal by an electromechanical reaction between oxygen, moisture and the base materials. 21. Anytime you have dissimilar metals touching and enough moisture, the least noble of the two metals is going to corrode. 22. Newer digital avionics can function properly even with a slight bit of corrosion on their contacts, while older analog avionics can t withstand the electrical resistance caused by even a small amount of corrosion. 23. Which of the following are true with regards to use of corrosion prevention compounds? A. More is not better B. They form a barrier to keep electrolytes from interacting with exposed metals C. They can be sprayed onto circuit boards APRIL A deviation on an AML STC is necessary when the installation does not match the equipment list and/ or equipment integration approved in the original installation.

4 25. Any deviations from the original STC must be documented and approved by. A. ACO engineer or field inspector B. DER C. Installer E. A or B only NextGen s Next Technology 26. A consideration of standalone ADS-B solutions in Part 25 aircraft is. A. The stand-alone system s WAAS/GPS engine serves only the transponder B. It does not open up LPV instrument approaches C. It enables RNP for optimized flight paths D. A and B only 27. After 2020, aircraft will have to be equipped to FANS standards to fly at or above FL290 in the North Atlantic. 28. Which of the following systems employs geosynchronous satellites with reliable reach to the 70th parallel for FANS coverage. A. Iridium B. GLONASS C. Inmarsat D. WAAS/GPS 29. Which of the following provides global coverage with a constellation of low- Earth orbit satellites? A. Iridium B. Inmarsat C. GLONASS D. SBAS Real-World Avionics 30. Aircraft tires provide the necessary insulation to avoid static discharge while fueling an aircraft. 31. Per the FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Airframe Handbook, separate grounds should be provided for AC and DC returns to avoid. A. Static discharge B. Ground loops C. Noise coupling D. Signal loss 32. For VHF antenna installations, a minimum of ground plane is recommended. A. 1 ft. x 1 ft. B. 2 ft. x 2 ft. C. 3 ft. x 3 ft. D. Zero for metal airplanes MAY ADS-B Out system installations can be approved using data approvals other than an STC, including a field approval. ADS-B Around the Globe 34. In Australia, percent of flights at or above FL290 are ADS-B equipped. A. 20 B. 61 C. 75 D Australia uses both the 1090 ES and 978 UAT ADS-B systems. 36. The ADS-B Out requirement for Europe takes effect June 2016 for new aircraft and June 2020 for retrofit. JUNE Any alteration or modification to an aircraft data used for an aircraft, part or component must be approved by. A. The authority where the work is performed B. The authority where the aircraft was manufactured. C. The national authority of the state of registry of the aircraft D. The FAA 38. The basic FAA documentation for return to service of an article (14 CFR 43.9) is seldom acceptable on non- U.S. aircraft. 39. It is safe to assume that since one country accepts goods and services from another country that the acceptances are mutual. 40. The ADS-B Out rule. A. Is an airspace not an airframe rule B. Applies to any aircraft flying in ADS-B airspace C. Requires installations meet national and foreign ADS-B requirements

5 41. The definition of Basic Supplemental Type Certificate means. A. EASA can be the validating authority for export to the U.S. B. U.S. validating authority is required C. An STC whose validation does not require validating authority technical involvement D. The FAA is the validating authority for import into the U.S. JULY Generally, any airspace that currently requires a transponder will require ADS-B Out except aircraft not certified with an electrical system. More Power to the Panel 43. An aircraft s alternator A. Serves as the electrical source for the aircraft during normal operation B. Supplies power to the bus C. Takes mechanical torque from the engine and creates electrical energy 44. To perform a proper load dump or load check,. A. Leave the alternator on and turn off systems starting with the lowest load B. Leave the alternator on and turn off systems starting with the highest load C. Just turn on the battery master D. Turn essential avionics and equipment off last 45. From the alternator s perspective, the best way to test an aircraft battery s duration is to unload the system, then gradually return the systems you need to continue flight. 46. When an electrical load analysis exceeds percent of the output load limits of the alternator or generator, the electrical load must be reduced or generating capacity of the charging system increased. A. 20 B. 80 C. 82 D Which of the following are some of the performance advantages alternators have over generators? A. Alternators weigh less than generators B. Alternators are less noisy electronically C. Alternators deliver more power at lower engine RPMs E. A and C only 48. Factors that can reduce an alternator s ability to produce full power ratings include. A. Loss of belt elasticity due to freezing temperatures B. Cold weather can thicken bearing grease and decrease efficiency on startup C. Background noise in the aircraft audio system E. A and B only 49. Noise from the magnetos or alternator will vary in frequency with changes in engine RPM and could signal the beginning of a failing alternator while no other visible signs exist. AUGUST The three documents that define your repair station business are. A. The repair station manual, operation specifications and quality control manual B. The repair station manual, capabilities list and operation specifications C. The repair station manual, quality control manual and repair station training program manual D. The repair station manual, training program manual and operation specifications 51. Which of the following are reasons portable ADS-B Out systems are prohibited? A. Connecting wiring can interfere with aircraft controls and instruments B. Antenna placement can obstruct the pilot s view C. Poor antenna placement can result in degraded performance E. Portable ADS-B Out solutions are not prohibited

6 52. Mode S or ICAO codes remain static until a change in aircraft registration or identification occurs. Portable units require users to input the Mode S code assigned to each aircraft flown, which can introduce errors. SEPTEMBER The final rule for ADS-B Out did not add any continuing airworthiness inspections for ADS-B equipment. 54. Transponder-based ADS-B systems will be required to meet the scheduled inspection requirements of. A. FAR B. FAR C. Not required to be inspected because of automated monitoring D. Those required for 978 MHz UAT systems Wired for Standby 55. Options for electrical system redundancy (redundancy beyond the main-ship battery) include? A. Ram air turbines B. Second main-ship battery C. Second alternator 56. A benefit of integrated standby batteries in today s PFDs and MFDs is that they can keep their integrated GPS alive long enough to navigate to the ground while not adding to drain on the main-ship battery. Exporting a Component After Repair 57. If a U.S. repair station ships a component to the United Kingdom to be installed in a U.S.-registered aircraft, the FAA does not consider this to be an export because the component remains under the airworthiness jurisdiction of the United States. 58. The servicing and replacement of parts and equipment exception found in the Commerce Department regulations can apply to the export of avionics if the following are true:. A. The unit was in for testing, inspection calibration or repair B. The work performed changed the dash number of the unit C. A software upgrade was performed that changed the basic characteristics of the unit OCTOBER Per the FAA regulations, if you are returning an aircraft to its current type design, it s ; but if you are changing the aircraft from its type design, it is. A. A minor alteration, a major change B. A major alteration, minor change C. A repair, an alteration D. An alteration, a repair 60. Just-in-case field approvals are recommended when you determine an alteration is not major but still want to have FAA review. International News and Regulatory Updates 61. If an experimental aircraft or a component of an experimental aircraft is outside the scope of Part 145, then a repair station is prohibited from performing maintenance on that aircraft or component. 62. Based on FAA legal interpretation, altimeter systems and altitude reporting equipment tests and inspections (91.411) can be performed on an experimental, amateur-built aircraft by any certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those functions and holding the required ratings. 63. Which of the following are common ADS-B installation errors? A. Transmit of Mode 3/A code not enabled (UAT devices) B. Improper setting of Mode S code C. Improper interference with barometric altitude source E. Both A and B only

7 Real-World Avionics 64. ADS-B traffic reports are less accurate than Traffic Information Service (TIS) but can be received by the transponder. 65. Most UATs are designed for mounting because they require the ADS-B system retains a functioning. A. Panel, integrated WAAS/GPS B. Panel, Mode C transponder C. Remote, Mode C transponder D. Remote, integrated WAAS/GPS 66. The FAA requires the same squawk code to be reported by the UAT and the transponder, otherwise air traffic control will see what appear to be two separate aircraft in the same location. NOVEMBER To meet the ADS-B Out requirement, if an aircraft flies in Class A airspace (at or above FL180) the ADS-B Out system must operate on the. A. 978 MHz frequency B MHz frequency C. 406 MHz frequency 68. The 1090 ES transponder provides which of the following benefits as an ADS-B Out solution? A. Meets broader airspace requirements than 978 MHz UAT solutions B. Compatible for international flying C. ADS-B In capability E. Both A and B only 69. Position source information for general aviation aircraft upgrading to ADS-B Out can come from. A. ADS-B systems with integrated WAAS B. GPS/WAAS navigators already installed in the aircraft C. Stand-alone WAAS units for ADS-B only E. Both B and C only 70. Aircraft owners choosing to satisfy the ADS-B mandate with a UAT 978 MHz solution will be required to change their Mode C transponders, as well. DECEMBER A TCAS-equipped aircraft must use the same altimetry source for ADS-B transmittal as it does for its TCAS. 72. Technicians performing altimeter system (91.411) or transponder (91.413) tests for a repair station must be certificated to perform the tests. 73. ATC transponder tests and inspections must be conducted by a certificated repair station properly equipped to perform these functions and holding. A. A Class III radio rating B. A limited radio rating appropriate to the make and model transponder to be tested C. A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed D. Any of the above 74. For work being supervised, which of the following must be appropriately certificated as a mechanic or repairman under Part 65? A. Persons authorized to approve an article for return to service B. Supervisors C. Technicians E. A and B only 75. There is no requirement that all maintenance performed on behalf of the repair station be performed only by certificated employees.

8 2015 Technical Training Exam Full Name: Date: (please print legibly) Company: Address: City: State/Province: Zip/Postal Code: Phone: Address: The answers to this exam are all available at your fingertips simply refer to the 2015 back issues of Avionics News or go to avionicsnews.net to search the archives. Answer 85 percent of the questions correctly, and you will receive a certificate of completion to submit to your FSDO and to the AEA for training credit. AEA members can visit for information about applying for credit toward the 2015 Avionics Training Excellence Award. This test also can be taken and submitted online at avionicsnews.net. Or, complete this answer sheet, and then it to info@aea.net. Important date: April 1, 2016 Deadline to submit application (with exams) for credit toward the AEA s 2015 Avionics Training Excellence Award. Choose the best available answer. Work individually. (T) (F) 1 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 2. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 3. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 4. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 5. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 6. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 7. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 8. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 9. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 10. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 11. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 12. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 13. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 14. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 15. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 16. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 17. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 18. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 19. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 20. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 21. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 22. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 23. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 24. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 25. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] (T) (F) (T) (F) 26. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 27. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 28. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 29. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 30. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 31. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 32. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 33. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 34. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 35. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 36. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 37. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 38. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 39. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 40. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 41. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 42. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 43. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 44. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 45. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 46. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 47. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 48. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 49. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 50. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 51. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 52. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 53. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 54. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 55. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 56. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 57. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 58. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 59. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 60. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 61. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 62. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 63. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 64. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 65. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 66. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 67. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 68. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 69. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 70. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 71. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 72. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 73. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 74. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 75. [A] [B] [C] [D] [E]