Fédération Française de Vol à Voile

Transcription

1 THEORETICAL EXAMINATION FOR FRENCH GLIDING LICENCE (BPP) 1. Knowledge and use of the glider 1.1 General knowledge of basic terminology (1 question minimum) 1) What is the Leading edge of a wing? Reply : It is the front part of the wing. 2) What is the Wing Root? Reply : The part of the wing where it joins with the fuselage. 3) What is the Span? Reply : It is the distance between the two wing tips. 4) What is the Elevator? Reply : It is the movable horizontal control surface at the back of the glider. 5) What are the ailerons? Reply : Two movable control surfaces forming part of the trailing edge near the wing tips. Note : the 5 questions above can be asked during a walk round a glider. 6) What are the colours of the Trim control, Airbrake lever, and Tow cable release? Reply : Green, Blue and Yellow respectively. 7) What is the standard colour for the control handle used for normal opening of the canopy without jettisoning it? Reply : White 8) What is the standard colour of the emergency canopy jettison handle? Reply : Red 9) Sketch a wing section showing the terminology used to describe it. Reply : The sketch should label the upper and lower surface, leading edge, trailing edge and the chord line. 10) Show using a sketch the position of an elevator trim tab relative to the elevator when selected to dive or increase speed. 11) In what direction do the ailerons deflect when the stick is moved to the right? Reply : The right aileron moves up and the left aileron goes down. 1

2 1.2 Principles of flight and piloting technique in flight (5 questions minimum) 12) For a glider having a speed V relative to the air, give the orientation and speed of the relative wind. Reply : The relative wind is equal to the speed of the glider through the air, and in the opposite direction. 13) For a glider in steady straight flight, what force is supporting the weight of the glider? Reply : The aerodynamic resultant force. 14) How does the magnitude of aerodynamic resultant change as the relative wind speed changes? Reply : It varies as the square of the relative wind. 15) What is the definition of angle of attack? Reply : It is the angle between the relative wind and the wing chord line. 16) How does the Aerodynamic Resultant change as the angle of attack is increased? Is there a limit? Reply : The Aerodynamic Resultant rises with the increasing angle of attack. There is a limit, the stalling angle of attack. 17) What is the relationship between Angle of attack, and airspeed, at constant G? Reply : They vary in opposite senses. AOA rises as IAS falls. 18) In what speed range is positive flap used? Reply : For low airspeeds. 19) Explain simply why a glider moves forward through the air? Reply : Because the glider has a downwards trajectory relative to the air, there is a component of its weight which supplies the force needed to equal the drag. (sketch advised). 20) The examiner will provide a sketch showing a glider, its speed relative to the air, the aerodynamic resultant and its weight. Reply : The candidate will add the Lift, (being the component of the aerodynamic resultant perpendicular to the speed vector), and the Drag, parallel and opposite to the speed vector. 21) How does the glide angle vary as drag changes? Reply : Increasing drag produces a steeper glide angle. 22) What is the role of the horizontal tail surfaces (or empennage)? Reply : 1) To correct the variations of angle of attack caused by movements in the atmosphere, or in other words, to provide longitudinal pitch stability, and 2) To produce angle of attack changes and hence changes to the flight path as the pilot demands by moving the stick forward or aft as required. 23) Give some different ways of describing the glide angle of a glider Reply : Forward speed divided by vertical speed, Or, Distance travelled divided by height lost, Or, the Lift/Drag ratio (L/D) at a given angle of attack. 2

3 24) What is the height lost in calm air by a glider as it travels 27km with achieved glide ratio of 36? Reply : 750 m. 25) What is the glide ratio of a glider flying at 108km/h and descending at 1.5m/sec? Reply : ) What is the relationship between the aerodynamic resultant and the weight of a glider, when it is flying in straight constant speed flight? Reply : The two forces are equal and opposite in direction and magnitude. 27) What effect on the speed and flight path of a glider will result if the pilot increases angle of attack by a rearward movement of the stick? Reply : The flight will curve upwards because the lift becomes temporarily greater than the weight. This will result in a reduction of airspeed. 28) What is the action which leads to creating the force required to turn? Reply : Banking the glider, and thus inclining the aerodynamic resultant force generated by the glider. 29) What is the «Load Factor» g? Reply : It is the ratio of Lift over weight at the time considered. 30) How would you increase the airspeed from an IAS of 80km/h to 110km/h? Reply : I would select an attitude roughly corresponding to the desired speed of 110km/h and wait for the airspeed to stabilise. Then I would make small pitch attitude corrections as required. 31) What causes adverse yaw? Reply : It is caused by the drag produced by the downgoing aileron being greater than that produced by the one deflected upwards. 32) When does adverse yaw happen? Reply : Every time the pilot moves the stick laterally. 33) How does adverse yaw become apparent? Reply : By a yawing motion in the opposite direction to the direction the stick is being moved laterally. 34) What action should be taken to eliminate adverse yaw? Reply : Use of rudder in the same direction at the same time as aileron deflection is applied. 35) In a steady turn, does the aerodynamic resultant remain equal to the weight of the glider? Reply : No, it is now greater than the weight. Note : (UK people would probably prefer to be asked :- Does Lift still equal weight during a turn? we don t discuss «aerodynamic resultant». Not very rigorous but it is practical.) 36) What is induced roll, and what causes it? Reply : It is the tendency during a turn, of bank angle to increase. It happens because more lift is being produced by the wing on the outside of the turn, which is thereby experiencing greater airspeed. 3

4 37) How is induced roll controlled? Reply : By maintaining the stick laterally towards the outside of the turn. 38) When is a glider said to be in unbalanced flight? Reply : When the airflow is at an angle to the plane of symmetry, i.e. Approaching from one side rather than directly in front. (It can also be called «slip» or «skid».) 39) What is induced yaw, and what causes it? Reply : It is an effect which occurs during a stablised turn which could lead to a slight sideslip towards the inside of the turn. It is caused by the greater drag produced by the outer wing, because of its higher airspeed. 40) How is induced yaw corrected by the pilot? Reply : By pushing the rudder pedal to whose side the slip ball has moved. («Treading on the ball») or By pushing on the rudder pedal to align the airflow with the fuselage, using the yaw string as an indicator. (i.e. Pushing on the pedal towards which the front of the yaw string.) 41) Why is it dangerous to be too high during aerotow? Reply : Because above a certain point the glider/tug combination will become unstable, lifting the tail of the tug uncontrollably and causing it to descend until it strikes the ground. Releasing the tow rope may be impossible due to excessive tension. 42) What is the effect of extending the airbrakes while continuing the current flight path? Reply : A reduction of speed. 43) What is the effect of closing the airbrakes while maintaining constant speed? Reply : A reduction of the glider s rate of descent. 44) What is the typical length of a normal final approach (in metres), and roughly how long would it take in seconds? Reply : 500 to 1200 metres depending on the glider type, that is 20 to 50 seconds. 45) What is the theoretically optimum approach slope? Reply : That which results in the correct approach speed at ½ airbrake. 46) On final approach with optimum target speed achieved and stabilised, what initial actions should you take if you notice that your reference point is disappearing under the nose? Reply : I would extend full airbrake, and select a more nose down attitude in order to maintain my approach speed. 47) What are three parameters to constantly monitor on final approach? Reply : Alignment with planned landing area, approach slope, and airspeed. 48) What bank angle is recommended for the turn onto final approach? Reply : 20 to 30 degrees. 4

5 49) During a crosswind take-off, your glider gets airborne before the tug as usual. What action should you take to keep the tow rope and yourself aligned with the tug? Reply : I would gently adjust to allow for drift. 50) In a crosswind aerotow take-off, which wing tip is more likely touch the ground? Reply : The upwind wing. (Because the tug s propwash will be blown under the other.) 51) What adjustment would you make to your approach speed if you expect a headwind of 40km/h on landing? Reply : I would increase my zero wind approach speed by 20km/h. 52) You have just completed a landing in a very strong wind. What should you do? Reply : I would stay in the glider with airbrakes out, wheelbrake on and canopy locked. 53) You experience a tailwind on base leg, how should you plan your turn to finals? Reply : I would start it earlier than normal. 54) What is the weather cocking effect? How is controlled on landing? Reply : It is the tendency of a glider to turn into wind when rolling on the ground. It can be limited by applying opposite rudder while it is effective and then stopping the glider with wheelbrake. Also keep the stick fully back to make maximise the grip of the tail wheel or skid on the ground. 55) What is the recommended height to start the down wind leg? Reply : 200 to 250 m 56) The examiner will draw a sample glider polar curve. Mark on it the points corresponding to Best Glide Ratio (best L/D) and Minimum Sink. 57) What is relationship the «Glide Ratio or L/D» of a glider and the angle of descent in flight? Reply : the bigger the L/D the smaller the descent angle. 58) What airspeed corresponds to the minimum angle of descent in still air? Reply : Best L/D speed or Best Glide speed (the two being different phrases for the same thing.) 59) What speed should you fly to remain airborne for the longest time possible? (without lift) Reply : Minimum sink speed. 60) What device at what setting will give the speed to fly for minimum height loss through an area of sink? Reply : the McCready ring set at zero. 61) To reach your home field while experiencing a headwind, what speed should you fly to lose minimum height en route? Reply : At the speed given by the McCready ring set for the equivalent wind. 5

6 62) You are flying at 90km/h, the vario is reading a steady 1m/s, there is a headwind of 20kt. What is your achieved Glide ratio? Reply : About 1 : 15 63) What do we call the «achievable range» of a glider? Reply : It is the distance it can cover in all possible flight conditions to a landing place, taking into account the height necessary for a circuit before landing. 64) What airspeed point (on a Polar) lies at the top of the curve between very high angle of attack flight and low angle of attack flight? Reply : The Minimum sink speed. 65) What is a Stall? Reply : Above a certain angle of attack, (in the region of 18 ) gross separation of the airflow over the top of the wing produces a sudden major loss of lift and a very large increase of drag. This is called a Stall. 66) What are the indications of approaching a stall? What do you do to avoid it? Reply : Reduced airflow noise, soggy and ineffective controls, buffeting, low airspeed, nose high attitude. Action : Stick promptly and smoothly forward to reduce the angle of attack. 67) Give two parameters which influence the stall speed of a given glider Reply : A given glider will stall at a higher speed: - If the wing loading is higher - If it is flying with increased g (load factor) - If the wing is wet or dirty - If flown out of balance - Depending on the flap setting or airbrakes position 68) At a high bank angle, what pilot action could be taken to fly at the same angle of attack as at a low bank angle? Reply : Fly at higher speed. 69) Roughly how much does the Stall speed increase for bank angles of 30, 45, and 60? Reply : 7%, 20%, 40% 70) What is the relationship between the zero wind approach speed and the Stall speed in Landing configuration? ( Landing Config Stall speed is Vs1) Reply : Zero wind approach speed is 1.3 times Vs1 71) What can be the result of a stall from unbalanced flight? Reply : Autorotation into a spin, leading to a large loss of altitude. 72) What is the normal recovery action from autorotation into a spin? Reply : Simultaneously: Rudder opposite to rotation, Stick forward, Ailerons centred 6

7 73) By mistake you have flown through your planned approach centreline while still on base leg ; What precaution should you take before your turn to final approach? Reply : I would close the airbrakes to allow for the two turns now required to realign the glider correctly. 74) In a highly banked turn you notice the speed is abnormally high. What is the associated risk and what should you do? Reply : A possible spiral dive which could result in exceeding the glider s structural limits. Reduce the bank angle, then the airspeed. 1.3 Instruments et equipments (2 questions minimum) 75) What speed does the glider airspeed indicator show? Reply : the speed of the glider relative to the air. 76) Does the Variometer indicate vertical speed relative to the ground or to the air? Reply : Vertical speed relative to the ground. 77) Is the same tow rope ring compatible with the two types of tow-hook which may be fitted to a glider in France? Reply : No : for a Tost hook the ring used is smaller than that used for the «Aérazur» hook. 78) What personal equipment is needed for flying? Reply : A hat, sunglasses, well fitting shoes and clothing appropriate for the envisaged flight. 79) How would you set the altimeter during your checks (C.R.I.S.) in order to fly on QFE? Reply : Set the altimeter to read Zero. 80) How would you set the altimeter during your checks (C.R.I.S.) in order to fly on QNH? Reply : Set the altimeter to read airfield elevation. 81) To what pressure source is the altimeter connected? Reply : The Static pressure source. 82) What connections are needed for the Airspeed indicator? Reply : connections to the Static and Pitot (=Totale) pressure sources. 83) To what pressure source is an uncompensated variometer connected? Reply : The static pressure source. 84) What does the Volume control of a VHF radio do? Reply : It controls receiver volume. 85) What does a figure «3» on a compass rose indicate? Reply : 030 7

8 86) What does the Total Energy probe do? Reply : It allows the compensation of the Variometer to eliminate (for example) the effects of a pullup in lift so that the Variometer indicates the real rate of climb. (Thus it shows the change in Total Energy.) 87) If you make a pull-up in calm air what does a properly compensated total energy Variometer indicate? Reply : A roughly constant sink rate. 88) You make a pull-up in rising air. What does a compensated vario indicate? Reply : A climb equal to that which the glider would have while circling in that lift. 89) During the take-off roll, the variometer shows plus 3. The Vario is broken. True or False? Reply : False, because the Total energy of the glider is increasing. 90) Is the Compass readable in a turn? Reply : No 91) What altitude should not be passed without Oxygen equipment Reply : 3800 m (12,450ft approx) 92) Does the Stalling Indicated Airspeed change with altitude? Reply : No 93) What is the relationship between Indicated Airspeed (IAS) and True Airspeed (TAS) as altitude changes? Reply : TAS is greater by about 5% per 1000m of altitude. (Or, 1.75% per 1000ft) 1.4 In flight Limitations Preparation Use (2 questions minimum) 94) In a modern glider, up to what speed can you extend the airbrakes? Reply : Up to VNE 95) What does VNE mean? How is it shown on the panel? Reply : It is the Never exceed airspeed, shown by a red line on the Airspeed indicator. 96) What does the high end of the green arc on the Airspeed Indicator denote? Reply : The maximum authorised speed in rough air. 97) What does the yellow triangle on the Airspeed Indicator denote? Reply : the zero wind approach speed recommended by the manufacturer. ( 1.3 Vs in landing configuration at maximum weight.) 98) In what document are the speed limits and maximum g limit published? Reply : «Limitations» chapter of the flight manual 8

9 99) What type of glider certification allows it to practice aerobatics? Reply : One having aerobatic category certification : Category A. 100) Where does one find the Pilot weight limits? Reply : On the glider s weight schedule (= weight and balance report). 101) Where are instructions on use of ballast weights. Reply : In the Flight Manual and on cockpit placards. 102) Give two pieces of information found on cockpit placards. Reply : Maximum all up weight, maximum aerotow speed, maximum winch launch speed, MIN and MAX pilot weights, cockpit ballast weight use. 103) What might be characteristic of a glider flown with its Centre of Gravity approaching the Forward limit? Reply : Stable but heavy to manoevre in thermals. 104) Is it possible to fly a glider with its Centre of Gravity aft of the rear limit? Why? Reply : No. Because the glider will be unstable and would be dangerous. 105) On what document can you check that a glider is in flying condition? Reply : By checking the Validity date of the Certificate of Airworthiness, and then checking that there is no defect affecting airworthiness shown in the Log Book. 106) What does «APRS» in the glider Log book mean? Reply :That the glider has been passed for service by a person qualified to check its maintenance or repair. 2 Meteorology 2.1 The atmosphere (1 question minimum) 107) Most clouds occur in what layer of the atmosphere? Reply : The troposphere 108) What is the current unit of temperature measurement in France? Reply : The degree Celsius 109) On average, how does temperature change with height? Reply : The temperature reduces by about 6 5 per 1000 m up to the tropopause. (about 2 degrees per 1000ft) 110) What is a temperature inversion? Reply : It is an atmospheric layer in which temperature rises with increasing height. 111) What is an isothermal layer? Reply : It is an atmospheric layer in which temperature does not change with altitude.. 9

10 112) In what units is atmospheric pressure measured? Reply : The Hectopascal (hpa) 113) At low altitudes, how does atmospheric pressure change with altitude? Reply : Pressure reduces by 1hPa for each 8.5m increase in altitude. (or about 30 feet) 114) What is a ridge? Reply : A line of high pressure. 115) What is a trough? Reply : A line of low pressure. 116) What is a slack pressure area? (or «marsh») Reply : It is a large geographic area where the pressure varies very little. 117) What are clouds made up of? Reply : Dry air, water vapour, water droplets or ice crystals. 118) What is the Dew point? Reply : The temperature at which water vapour starts to condense from air if it is cooled at constant pressure. 119) When is air said to be saturated with water vapour? Reply : When the humidity is 100%. 120) What are the conditions needed for cloud to form? Reply : Saturated air in the presence of condensation nuclei. 121) For an airmass at a given pressure, is there a relationship between its humidity and the diurnal temperature variations? Reply : Yes, as the temperature rises the humidity falls, and vice versa. 122) What is the meteorological instrument used to measure wind speed? Reply : The Anemometer. 123) From what sector is a wind of 310 blowing? Reply : From the North-West. 124) In what sense does the wind flow round anticyclones in the Northern Hemisphere? Reply : Clockwise. 125) What is the relationship between the spacing of isobars and the wind strength? Reply : The closer the isobars the stronger the wind, and vice versa. 126) You are landing in strong wind conditions. What effects should you expect shortly before touchdown? Reply : These conditions can produce a pronounced drop in airspeed, and an increased sink rate during the last part of an approach. 10

11 127) Give an approximate equivalent of a 20kt in metres/second (m/s), and in km/h. Reply : About 10m/s et 40 km/h 2.2 Cloud, and weather systems (1 question minimum) 128) Give the names of some high level, medium level, and low level types of cloud which will produce bad soaring conditions. Reply : - Cirrus or cirrostratus or cirrocumulus - Altocumulus or altostratus - Stratus or strato-cumulus 129) Give the name of a cloud associated with good gliding conditions. Reply : Cumulus, lenticular, or rotor clouds. 130) What kind of cloud appears with the arrival of a warm front. Reply : Gradual arrival of Cirrus, slowly thickening. 131) Is the arrival of a warm front good for soaring? Why? Reply : No. Because it brings with it high clouds which reduce the sunshine, thus limiting convection. And (or) because the arrival of warm air at altitude will reduce instability in the airmass. 132) Is the warm sector of a depression generally favourable to gliding? Reply : No 133) What is typically characterises the passage of a Cold Front? Reply : it is often accompanied by strong Cumulonimbus, strong winds and heavy precipitation. 134) Where do «post-frontal» conditions lie relative to the fronts associated with a depression? What is typical weather in this area? Reply : These conditions lie behind (after) the cold front. They typically feature cumulus clouds, and a strong wind generally from the North West, associated with showers behind the cold front. 135) What is the definition of Fog. Reply : Visibility less than 1km. 136) Early on a calm, clear summer morning you notice that fog is forming. Should you deduce that it will be a poor soaring day? Reply : No, because it is probably advection fog which will disperse during the morning. 2.3 Aerology (1 question minimum) 137) Is unsaturated air, having a lapse rate of less than 1 per 100 m, stable or unstable? Reply : The air is stable 11

12 138) In an unsaturated air layer, the temperature is 15 at the surface and 8 at 500 m. Is this layer of air stable or unstable? Reply : unstable 139) What is a sign of too much instability? Reply : If cumulus is turning into cumulonimbus. 140) What could put a general limit on convection in spite of strong sunshine? Reply : A inversion layer or an isothermal layer. 141) Explain briefly how a thermal forms. Reply : Under the effect of solar radiation, some areas of the ground heat faster than other areas nearby. Air above these hotter areas also becomes hotter than the air surrounding it, becomes lighter than the surrounding air and rises. It continues to rise so long as it remains hotter than the surrounding air at the same level. 142) Give two phenomena which can upset the formation of lee wave. Reply : Unstable air mass. Or, weakening of wind strength, Or significant change in wind direction. 143) What is characteristic, in our climate, of the end of convection in the evening? Reply : Thermals reduce in strength, and become more widely spaced apart. 144) What is characteristic of the Fohn effect? Reply : An cloudless area downwind of high ground. 145) In mountainous areas, when does the «thermally induced wind up the mountainsides» (ie the valley breeze/slope wind system) get started? Reply : During the day, when the slopes exposed to the sun heat up faster than the valley. 146) What is a confluence? Reply : It is lift caused by the meeting of two air masses flowing in different directions. 147) With a wave system established, what kind of cloud can appear in the non-laminar layer just under the wave? Reply : Rotor clouds. 148) When does a sea breeze start? Reply : When convection begins over land and the resulting rising air is replaced by air from low altitudes over the sea. 149) What is the typical wavelength in lee wave systems encountered in France? Reply : 3 to 15 km 150) Why are rotor and lenticular clouds practically in fixed positions over the ground? Reply : Because the wave is stationary with respect to the high terrain producing it and because these clouds form in the rising part of the wave and dissipate in the decending part. 12

13 2.4 Unfavourable conditions for Gliding (1 question minimum) 151) You observe a developing thunderstorm approaching the aerodrome. You are flying in local gliding range of the aerodrome. What should you do? Reply : Return and land well before the arrival of the storm. 152) What are the dangers related to a Thunderstorm? Reply : Strong lift which may take you up into the cloud, and also strong sink that may make reaching the aerodrome impossible. - Windshear, and strong turbulence, which could damage the glider. - Heavy rain and hail. - Lightning strikes - Rapid shifts of wind speed and direction 2.5 Analyse and weather forecast (1 question minimum) 153) Find on a TAF or a METAR the infromation on wind, pressure, and temperature. 154) On a TEMSI map, the reports of cloud base and tops is based on what reference? (TEMSI = Sig WX) Reply : Mean sea level.. 155) Decode the graphic representation of winds on a WINTEM map. (Wind and Temperature map) 156) On what chart can you find the position of a front? Reply : On a TEMSI map. (TEMSI = Sig WX) 157) Where can you find, for example, the codes used in the Meteo France maps and reports? Reply : In the Météo France aviation guide. 158) Find (for example) the latest TEMSI Sig Wx chart or a Taf or a METAR on the «OLIVIA» web site. ( ) (a.k.a. On Line Integrated tool for Visualization of Information for Airmen) 159) What is a TAF? Reply : It is a weather forecast message for an aerodrome. 160) What is a METAR? Reply : It is a weather report message for an aerodrome. 161) On a TAF or a METAR what reference is used to report cloud base? Reply : The ground. ( the landing area ) 13

14 3 Aeronautical rules and regulations 3.1 Pilot and glider (2 questions minimum) 162) What is the validity period of a Medical certificate for a pilot less than 40 years old, and for one older than 40. Reply : 60 months and 24 months. 163) In what document are the limitations and characteristics of a glider to be found? Reply : In the Flight Manual 164) What document stating the ownership of a glider should be found in the cover pocket of the glider Log Book? Reply : the registration certificate. 165) What information should the pilot write in the «observations» column of the glider log book after flying? Reply : Any technical problems noticed or the letters RAS and his signature. (Note. RAS = Rien A Signaller = nothing to report) 166) Is the Glider pilot licence all that is needed to fly cross country? Reply : No, the pilot must also have the authorisation to fly cross country written in his log book. 167) What document will give you the minimum pilot weight? Reply : The glider s weight sheet/placard (= weight and balance form). 168) You see that the glider s CofA (CEN) is out of validity by a few days. Is there a tolerance on this validity which allows you to fly? Reply : No 169) You only have 5 hours flying and 4 landings in the 24 months preceding your intended solo flight. Are you legal to fly? Reply : No, I must first pass a flight test with an examiner. 3.2 Air Traffic (5 questions minimum) 170) Are glider pilots subject to the rules of the air? Reply : Yes. 171) What precaution do you take before flying over a large built up area? Reply : I ensure that I will continuously have sufficient height to reach a landable area without putting people or property in danger. 14

15 172) What preflight preparation must you carry out? Reply : I must : - Make sure that the airspace that I plan to use is not subject to temporary restrictions announced by NOTAM - Brief myself on today s weather - Make a pre flight inspection of my glider 173) In VFR, is the pilot in command responsible for preventing collision whatever class of airspace he is using? Reply : Yes 174) Which document shows the location of the signal area at an aerodrome? Reply : The visual approach chart (VAC) for that aerodrome. 175) What are the 3 services rendered by the air traffic services? Reply : Information, control, and warning. 176) Is Class E airspace part of controlled airspace? Reply : yes 177) Is a clearance required to penetrate Class E airspace? Reply : No 178) In VMC can I cross an airway below FL115 without clearance? Reply : Yes but I must keep a good look out. 179) How can you make sure that you don t fly above FL115? Reply : By not passing 3450m on my altimeter set to Hpa 180) Could you encounter IFR traffic in Class G airspace? Reply : Yes 181) What is the rule for collision avoidance in VFR flight? Reply : «See and Avoid» 182) State 3 types of zones with special status. Reply : Prohibited zones, Restricted or Regulated (special rules) zones, and Danger areas. 183) Your map shows an area labelled P35 shaded red. What type of airspace is it? Reply : A prohibited area, entry forbidden. 184) You are flying in Class G airspace over low countryside at an altitude greater than 900m QNH. How far must you remain below cloudbase? Reply : 300 m 185) In Class E airspace how far must you stay clear of cloud vertically, and horizontally? Reply : 300m and 1500m. 15

16 186) A cumulus cloud is 200m above a hill whose top is 1500mAMSL. Can you climb right up to the base of this cloud? Why? Reply : yes, because within 300m of the ground it is only required to be clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. 187) On which side do you pass another aircraft? Reply : To its right. 188) If two gliders meet while flying along a ridge, what is the rule on right of way? Reply : The glider having the hill on its right maintains its course and the other moves out to its right. 189) Is cloud flying in gliders allowed in France? Reply : No 190) A glider converges with you on your right, What do you do? Reply : he has the right of way ; I manoevre to pass behind him. 191) At the end of your base leg you notice a powered aircraft on final. What do yo do? Reply : I have right of way but I avoid doubt by making a radio call to assure myself that he has seen me also. 192) How does a glider registered F-CEAU start a radio call? Reply : Fox-trot-Charlie-Echo-Alpha-Uniform. 193) When does aeronautical night start? Reply : 30 minutes after sunset. 194) What documents show the frequency for an aerodrome? Reply : the visual approach chart and the VFR 1/ chart 195) What information received by radio should be read back? Reply : Pressure settings, runway in use, frequencies and clearances. 196) You arrive at an aerodrome with no Landing Tee. How is the landing direction given? Reply : The wind sock 197) On what frequency should you transmit a distress message? Reply : Initially on the current control frequency/frequency in use and then on ) You are about to land at an aerodrome also used by powered aircraft ; No frequency is published for this aerodrome. On what frequency do you transmit position messages? Reply : ) What is an «AIR PROX»? Reply : A reporting form. A pilot may complete and submit an AIR PROX report following any event involving risk of collision. 16

17 200) What follows after an AIR PROX report is made? Reply : An investigation is conducted and errors (infringements ) can be identified 201) What sanctions are available to a Commission de Discipline? Reply : a warning, a temporary or a permanent withdrawal of license 3.3 Aeronautical charts (2 questions minimum) 202) What distance is represented by 12cm on a Half Million (1 :500,000) map? Reply : 60 km. 203) Up to what altitude or height does the 1:500,000 map provide information. Reply : The higher of 5000ft QNH or 200ft AGL. (Above Ground Level) 204) Above 5000ft QNH what document should you use? Reply : The 1/1,000,000 official SIA map and its complementary booklet. 205) What document gives the days and times of activity of the Military low flying route system called the «Réseau Très basse Altitude de Défense» or «RTBA»? Reply : The SIA charts supplementary booklet. 206) If the RTBA is active, can you enter it? Reply : No 207) On a 1 : chart what does the red dotted circle centered on nuclear power stations represent? Reply : A temporary prohibited area ) On a 1 : chart, the information E 1500 ASFC concerning the vertical limits of a Class E TMA signifies that it is Class E all the way up to FL195. TRUE or FALSE? Why? Reply : FALSE. Because the symbol + does not apply above 5000ft QNH on the 1 : chart. Refer to the 1 : scale chart. 209) Where can you find the geographic co-ordinates of an aerodrome? Reply : On the Visual approach chart. 210) On what document can you find the zone crossing rules for an aerodrome control zone (CTR).? Reply : On the Visual approach chart. 211) How often is the 1 :1,000,000 SIA chart revised and published. Reply : Twice a year 17

18 212) On what document would you find radio frequencies and special instructions for an aerodrome. Reply : On the Visual approach chart. 213) Other than from the Visual approach chart, is it possible to find out the Elevation and the radio frequency for an aerodrome on which you are preparing to land? Reply : Yes, on the 1 :500,000 chart this information is printed under the name of the aerodrome. 214) Where can you find the details of a «R» or «D» Zone. Reply : In the supplementary booklet to the official SIA charts. 215) On a Visual Approach Chart (VAC) or on a 1 ;500,000 chart you see that the elevation of an aerodrome is 530ft. What is its elevation in metres? Reply : about 160 m 216) Convert FL65 to metres Reply : 1950 m. 217) You are preparing to cross an active RTBA (RÉSEAU TRÈS BASSE ALTITUDE= miltary low flying route) near a point on the surface with elevation 1500ft ; the airspace is annotated «3000 ASFC». what precaution must you take? Reply : I would climb to an altitude which allows me to cross the airspace without descending below 4500ft QNH (1350 m QNH) 218) During a flight, how can you find out the activity status of an Aerobatic Axis or a Parachuting Area? Reply : By contacting the In flight information service for the area in which I am flying. 4 Human performance and limits 4.1 Basic Physiology relating to gliding (1 question minimum) 219) What is Hypoxia? How does it manifest itself? Reply : Hypoxia occurs when the cells of the body receive too little oxygen. The onset is insidious. Initially there is fatigue and slowing mental processes, then further difficulty of rational thought, and tingling of the fingertips. The final stages are loss of conciousness and then death. 220) What is Peripheral Vision.? Reply : It is the eye function of seeing movement at the edge of the field of vision. 221) What are the symptoms of aeroembolism? Reply : Extreme pain caused by expansion at altitude of air trapped in closed cavities in the body. (Sinus, teeth, ears, abdomen.) 222) What is the risk of flying with sinusitis or an ear infection? Reply : Aeroembolism. 18

19 223) How should you limit the risk of pain in the ears caused by pressure changes when flying? Reply : Never fly with a cold, and avoid extreme rates of descent. 224) What may be the physiological effects of applying 4G? Reply : Loss of peripheral vision and colour vision. (Tunnel vision and Grey-out) 225) Why is the taking of drugs and alcohol incompatible with flying? Reply : Because they are harmful and altitude increases their effects. 226) Why is flying in cloud dangerous? Reply : because of the serious risk of spatial disorientation caused by sensory illusion, leading to loss of control of the glider. 227) Above 2500m / 8200ft AMSL what are the 3 factors that can produce physical and physiological phenomena? Reply : - lack of oxygen - Cold - Lower air pressure 4.2 Basic Psychology relating to gliding (1 question minimum) 228) Give a practical example of an action taken by memorised procedure. Reply : The recall actions required after take-off in the event of tow cable failure or tug engine failure. 229) Give an example of a reflex action. Reply : Pushing forward on the stick when you detect signs of a stall. 230) When the workload is high, what must be the highest priority? Reply : Control of the flight path of the glider. 231) Give two causes of «Stress» Reply : - Unexpected and worsening situation - Time pressure - Excessive workload - Lack of understanding of situation in flight 232) Give a few effects of high stress levels Reply : - Focussing on detail and thus losing the overall picture - Hasty and perhaps inappropriate/disorganised actions - Erratic and uncoordinated flying 233) What can be used to limit stress? Reply : Preflight preparation, anticipation of problems, adequate level of knowledge for the planned flight, sufficient sleep. 19